As 400 Interview Questions
1. Define a shared access path?
To share the open data path by various programs in a same job.
2. What is the difference between array and a multiple occurrence data structure?
The values stored in array don’t vary. In the other hand, we can store the
Different values in same variables at various stages.
3. What is *INZSR used for?
It is special type of RPG/400 subroutine, which is executed automatically
at beginning of the program. It is a good place to code initializes the variables.
4. How can you execute a command from within an RPG program without calling a CLP program?
By calling QCMDEXC application program interface we can execute a CL command with in an RPG program.
5. What is the purpose of the “N” in the following calculation specification?
C KEY CHAIN FILE N 99
If you specify ‘N’ in 53rd position, the record will not be locked if you try to read the locked record. It is a way of avoiding the record lock.
7. How can you check for a records existence without causing and I/O (CHAIN/READ)?
With the help of File Information Data Structure, we can check existence of records in a physical file. The code is described below:
In File description continuation line (IPFK),
KINFDS RCDS
IRCDS DS
I *RECORD #RCDS
with the above code we can check the existence of records in a file without causing I/O operation.
8. Define what a data area is along with a brief example of what it may be used for?
Data area is a storage area to store limited information.
Example: a new and unique customer number is generated whenever a new customer is added to customer master file.
Data area keeps track of last record added and add 1 to it. Through program we can access new customer number.
9. Define what a data queue is along with a brief example of what it may be used for?
Data queues provides communication between programs by calling API’s QSNDDTAQ and QRCVDTAQ along with parameters like data queue name, library in which data queue exists, variable to store the number of characters to be sent, variable to store the information to be sent. We can send the same data queue to the many programs.
10. What is the purpose of the following?
I ‘CLOSED’ C STAT01
I ‘OPEN’ C STAT02
It is a type of initializing the variables in I-spec. and these are further used in C-spec.
11. What is the difference between UDATE and the system date?
UDATE supports two-digit year. The format is *MDY (MMDDYY).
*DATE (system date) supports four digit year. The format is *MDYY (MMDDYYYY).
12. List some of the commonly used commands for debugging
STRDBG(for batch jobs), STRISDB.
13. Define the RCVF command?
RCVF command used to receive the records either from the data base file or device file.
14. Define the purpose of the %SST function?
To extract the information from the specified string.
15. Define the purpose of the *CAT function?
To concatenate the two strings into a one string.
16. Define the purpose of the *BCAT function?
To concatenate the two strings by placing a single blank in a resultant.
17. Describe the difference between the DOWxx and DOUxx operations?
DOWxx : If the condition becomes true, then only the group of instructions allowed executing.
DOUxx : Irrespective of condition, it will execute at least one time.
18. Define the purpose of the LEAVE operation?
If you specify LEAVE, the control transfers to the statement below the ENDDO.
19. Define the purpose of the ITER operation?
If you specify the ITER, the groups of statements are allowed to execute repeatedly.
20. List the steps/commands necessary to accomplish the following:
a. Copy data from the file ORDHDR into file ORDHIST
b. The file ORDHIST may or may not exist
c. If the file ORDHDR does exist, it may or may not contain data
d. The file ORDHIST may or may not contain data, if the file does contain data the old data should be erased
Commands: a. CPYF FILE(ORDHDR) TOFILE(ORDHIST)
b. CPYF FILE (ORDHDR) TOFILE (ORDHIST) CRTFILE (*YES)
c. CPYF FILE (ORDHDR) TOFILE (ORDHIST) *ADD
d. CPYF FILE (ORDHDR) TOFILE (ORDHIST) *REPLACE
Sybase DBA Interview Questions
Sybase DBA Interview Questions
1)List out the limitation on stored procedures?
2)Tell me the limitation of the Trigger?
3)What is difference between constraints and rules?
4)What are the steps involved in creating cursor?
5)Compare Rollback transaction and Rollback Trigger?
6)What is Demand lock and Dead lock?
7)What are the modes of transaction? And how do you change from one mode to another?
8)What is command permission and object permission?
9)What is Index Covering?
10)What is direct update and deffered update?
11)How will you minimizse the Lock contention?
12)How will you find second maximum value in a table?
13)What are different global variables ?
14)Compare 2 nd and 3 rd Normal form?
15)What is –I option in Sybase tools?
16)What is Phantom reads?
17)Explain Denormalization techniques?
18)Compare Subquery and Correlated Subquery?
19)Advantage of Stored Procedure?
20)Can I update view?
21)Explain about @@sqlstatus?
22)What is the disadvantage of CURSOR?
23)What are the Properties of Transaction?
24)How will bcp out the Identity column?
25)What is lock escalation?
26)How do I get the Duplicate rows from a table?
27)What is Checkpoint?
28)What is Distribution page?
29)How shall I simulate from level 0 to level 3 in Isolation?
30)Compare Join and SubQuery in performance?
31)What is ceiling()?
32)What is the stored procedure to view current lock and processes respectively?
33)Compare IN and EXISTS?
34)What is Rollback trigger in a Trigger?
35)What happen when we delete the table using Trigger?
36)What is the Drawbacks of Normalization?
1)List out the limitation on stored procedures?
2)Tell me the limitation of the Trigger?
3)What is difference between constraints and rules?
4)What are the steps involved in creating cursor?
5)Compare Rollback transaction and Rollback Trigger?
6)What is Demand lock and Dead lock?
7)What are the modes of transaction? And how do you change from one mode to another?
8)What is command permission and object permission?
9)What is Index Covering?
10)What is direct update and deffered update?
11)How will you minimizse the Lock contention?
12)How will you find second maximum value in a table?
13)What are different global variables ?
14)Compare 2 nd and 3 rd Normal form?
15)What is –I option in Sybase tools?
16)What is Phantom reads?
17)Explain Denormalization techniques?
18)Compare Subquery and Correlated Subquery?
19)Advantage of Stored Procedure?
20)Can I update view?
21)Explain about @@sqlstatus?
22)What is the disadvantage of CURSOR?
23)What are the Properties of Transaction?
24)How will bcp out the Identity column?
25)What is lock escalation?
26)How do I get the Duplicate rows from a table?
27)What is Checkpoint?
28)What is Distribution page?
29)How shall I simulate from level 0 to level 3 in Isolation?
30)Compare Join and SubQuery in performance?
31)What is ceiling()?
32)What is the stored procedure to view current lock and processes respectively?
33)Compare IN and EXISTS?
34)What is Rollback trigger in a Trigger?
35)What happen when we delete the table using Trigger?
36)What is the Drawbacks of Normalization?
Epic systems Interview questions
Epic systems Interview questions 1)Write algorithm to return change in denominations of 10$, 5$, 1$, 25 cents, 10 cents etc?
2)Explain algorithm for Replace all single occurrences of "a" with "the"?
3)Write Program to find no. of days between Jan1st and entered date?
4)Given a string.Replace the words whose lengt>=4 and is even,with a space between the two equal halves of the word.consider only alphabets for finding the eveness of the word
I/P "A person can't walk in this street"
O/P "A per son ca n't wa lk in th is stre et"
5)if a clock looses 2 secs per day, how much time will it loose in 2 days ?
6)What are callbacks?
7)What is static functions?
8)What are the concepts you know in oops explain?
9)In how many ways cube can be painted using three different colours?
2)Explain algorithm for Replace all single occurrences of "a" with "the"?
3)Write Program to find no. of days between Jan1st and entered date?
4)Given a string.Replace the words whose lengt>=4 and is even,with a space between the two equal halves of the word.consider only alphabets for finding the eveness of the word
I/P "A person can't walk in this street"
O/P "A per son ca n't wa lk in th is stre et"
5)if a clock looses 2 secs per day, how much time will it loose in 2 days ?
6)What are callbacks?
7)What is static functions?
8)What are the concepts you know in oops explain?
9)In how many ways cube can be painted using three different colours?
Questions to ask interviewer after interview
Questions to ask interviewer after interview
1.What project I will be working on?
2.What will be my role in this project?
3.What I will be doing in coming months?
4.What trainings do I receive?
(Don’t forget to add if I am selected to all above questions)
5.What are the growth opportunities?
6.Who will be meeting/interviewing me after this interview?
7.What are the challenges in the job?
8.How will performance be measured in this position? Especially in my first review ?
9.Does your company support educational/certification programs?
10.What is the company’s promotional policy?
11.If I am offered a job, how soon would you like me to start?
1.What project I will be working on?
2.What will be my role in this project?
3.What I will be doing in coming months?
4.What trainings do I receive?
(Don’t forget to add if I am selected to all above questions)
5.What are the growth opportunities?
6.Who will be meeting/interviewing me after this interview?
7.What are the challenges in the job?
8.How will performance be measured in this position? Especially in my first review ?
9.Does your company support educational/certification programs?
10.What is the company’s promotional policy?
11.If I am offered a job, how soon would you like me to start?
Reverse stack program with recursion
Reverse stack program with recursion
/****Reverse a stack with recursion...u have only pop, push, size,isEmpty functions****/
void recursive(Stack s)
{
if(s.isEmpty == true)
return ;
elem temp = s.pop();
recursive(s);
recur_push(temp, s);
return;
}
recur_push(elem t, stack s)
{
if(s.isEmpty == null)
{
s.push(t);
return;
}
temp1= s.pop()
recur_push(t,s);
s.push(temp1);
}
/****Reverse a stack with recursion...u have only pop, push, size,isEmpty functions****/
void recursive(Stack s)
{
if(s.isEmpty == true)
return ;
elem temp = s.pop();
recursive(s);
recur_push(temp, s);
return;
}
recur_push(elem t, stack s)
{
if(s.isEmpty == null)
{
s.push(t);
return;
}
temp1= s.pop()
recur_push(t,s);
s.push(temp1);
}
Strange interview Questions how to answers
Strange interview Questions how to answers
1. What can you do with this empty water bottle?
2. Which thing would you save from a fire in your house?
Office documents OR the only album of your parents?
3. If you could be any animal, what would you be?
4. What would you do if you see 5 muggers beating up an old man?
You cannot really fight all the 5.
5.How many of you know the difference between knowledge and wisdom?
Answer these caefully as when you encounter the strangest of situations. You will be totally applying yourself to come out of that situation. This is exactly the same the interviewer is trying to create for you, A Strange Dilemma.
1. What can you do with this empty water bottle?
2. Which thing would you save from a fire in your house?
Office documents OR the only album of your parents?
3. If you could be any animal, what would you be?
4. What would you do if you see 5 muggers beating up an old man?
You cannot really fight all the 5.
5.How many of you know the difference between knowledge and wisdom?
Answer these caefully as when you encounter the strangest of situations. You will be totally applying yourself to come out of that situation. This is exactly the same the interviewer is trying to create for you, A Strange Dilemma.
How to respond when dont know answer at interview
How to respond when dont know answer at interview
Problem
1) I don’t know the anything about the question.
2) I am stuck some where. I don’t know how to proceed.
3) I have made some assumptions but don’t know if they are correct. I don’t know whether the current approach is correct or not. What do I do?
Incorrect Response
A) I don’t know the solution.
B) I tried it long enough, I am unable to proceed ahead.
C) I know a solution which is not optimal, I should not tell that solution and sitting silently.
D) This is my solution (but not stating the assumptions made).
Correct Response
i) As I clarified earlier I am not aware of this particular domain to answer this question. I am aware of these basics only, that too I learned them while I am reading some technical blogs in my free time. So I am not confident of attempting this question because I will end up doing some guess work. If you think this question does’t need the in depth domain knowledge can you explain me the question again so that i will try.
Problem
1) I don’t know the anything about the question.
2) I am stuck some where. I don’t know how to proceed.
3) I have made some assumptions but don’t know if they are correct. I don’t know whether the current approach is correct or not. What do I do?
Incorrect Response
A) I don’t know the solution.
B) I tried it long enough, I am unable to proceed ahead.
C) I know a solution which is not optimal, I should not tell that solution and sitting silently.
D) This is my solution (but not stating the assumptions made).
Correct Response
i) As I clarified earlier I am not aware of this particular domain to answer this question. I am aware of these basics only, that too I learned them while I am reading some technical blogs in my free time. So I am not confident of attempting this question because I will end up doing some guess work. If you think this question does’t need the in depth domain knowledge can you explain me the question again so that i will try.
Why rejection happens in interviews
Why rejection happen in interviews
Any interviewer need to provider valid justification while selecting a candidate, but nothing while rejecting. It is a big mystery for candidates who will be rejected in interview after interview. MockInt team summarizes a list of 20 rejection reasons. Please note that this is list is apart from answering well in the interview.
1. Lack of courtesy and manners
2. Lazy
3. Non-punctual
4. Lack of a career plan
5. Dishonest
6. Over ambitious
7. Immaturity
8. Unrealistic aspirations
9. Scolding past organizations and bosses
10. Poor communication skills
11. Lack of sincerity
12. Lack of eye contact
13. Untidy or incomplete bio-data
14. No real interest in the job or the organization
15. Lack of knowledge
16. Lack of past achievements
17. Over aggressive and flashy
18. More emphasis on academics without experience
19. Extreme ideas and values
20. Disorganized answers
21. Asks no questions about the job
22. Unpressed and dirty clothes
Any interviewer need to provider valid justification while selecting a candidate, but nothing while rejecting. It is a big mystery for candidates who will be rejected in interview after interview. MockInt team summarizes a list of 20 rejection reasons. Please note that this is list is apart from answering well in the interview.
1. Lack of courtesy and manners
2. Lazy
3. Non-punctual
4. Lack of a career plan
5. Dishonest
6. Over ambitious
7. Immaturity
8. Unrealistic aspirations
9. Scolding past organizations and bosses
10. Poor communication skills
11. Lack of sincerity
12. Lack of eye contact
13. Untidy or incomplete bio-data
14. No real interest in the job or the organization
15. Lack of knowledge
16. Lack of past achievements
17. Over aggressive and flashy
18. More emphasis on academics without experience
19. Extreme ideas and values
20. Disorganized answers
21. Asks no questions about the job
22. Unpressed and dirty clothes
What is Dynamic programming technique
What is Dynamic programming technique
Dynamic Programming:
A DP is an algorithmic technique which is usually based on a recurrent formula and one (or some) starting states. A sub-solution of the problem is constructed from previously found ones. DP solutions have a polynomial complexity which assures a much faster running time than other techniques like backtracking, brute-force etc.
Example Problem:
Given a list of N coins, their values (V1, V2, ... , VN), and the total sum S. Find the minimum number of coins the sum of which is S (we can use as many coins of one type as we want), or report that it's not possible to select coins in such a way that they sum up to S.
For a better understanding let's take this example:
Given coins with values 1, 3, and 5.
And the sum S is set to be 11.
First of all we mark that for state 0 (sum 0) we have found a solution with a minimum number of 0 coins. We then go to sum 1. First, we mark that we haven't yet found a solution for this one (a value of Infinity would be fine). Then we see that only coin 1 is less than or equal to the current sum. Analyzing it, we see that for sum 1-V1= 0 we have a solution with 0 coins. Because we add one coin to this solution, we'll have a solution with 1 coin for sum 1. It's the only solution yet found for this sum. We write (save) it. Then we proceed to the next state - sum 2. We again see that the only coin which is less or equal to this sum is the first coin, having a value of 1. The optimal solution found for sum (2-1) = 1 is coin 1. This coin 1 plus the first coin will sum up to 2, and thus make a sum of 2 with the help of only 2 coins. This is the best and only solution for sum 2. Now we proceed to sum 3. We now have 2 coins which are to be analyzed - first and second one, having values of 1 and 3. Let's see the first one. There exists a solution for sum 2 (3 - 1) and therefore we can construct from it a solution for sum 3 by adding the first coin to it. Because the best solution for sum 2 that we found has 2 coins, the new solution for sum 3 will have 3 coins. Now let's take the second coin with value equal to 3. The sum for which this coin needs to be added to make 3 , is 0. We know that sum 0 is made up of 0 coins. Thus we can make a sum of 3 with only one coin - 3. We see that it's better than the previous found solution for sum 3 , which was composed of 3 coins. We update it and mark it as having only 1 coin. The same we do for sum 4, and get a solution of 2 coins - 1+3. And so on.
Dynamic Programming:
A DP is an algorithmic technique which is usually based on a recurrent formula and one (or some) starting states. A sub-solution of the problem is constructed from previously found ones. DP solutions have a polynomial complexity which assures a much faster running time than other techniques like backtracking, brute-force etc.
Example Problem:
Given a list of N coins, their values (V1, V2, ... , VN), and the total sum S. Find the minimum number of coins the sum of which is S (we can use as many coins of one type as we want), or report that it's not possible to select coins in such a way that they sum up to S.
For a better understanding let's take this example:
Given coins with values 1, 3, and 5.
And the sum S is set to be 11.
First of all we mark that for state 0 (sum 0) we have found a solution with a minimum number of 0 coins. We then go to sum 1. First, we mark that we haven't yet found a solution for this one (a value of Infinity would be fine). Then we see that only coin 1 is less than or equal to the current sum. Analyzing it, we see that for sum 1-V1= 0 we have a solution with 0 coins. Because we add one coin to this solution, we'll have a solution with 1 coin for sum 1. It's the only solution yet found for this sum. We write (save) it. Then we proceed to the next state - sum 2. We again see that the only coin which is less or equal to this sum is the first coin, having a value of 1. The optimal solution found for sum (2-1) = 1 is coin 1. This coin 1 plus the first coin will sum up to 2, and thus make a sum of 2 with the help of only 2 coins. This is the best and only solution for sum 2. Now we proceed to sum 3. We now have 2 coins which are to be analyzed - first and second one, having values of 1 and 3. Let's see the first one. There exists a solution for sum 2 (3 - 1) and therefore we can construct from it a solution for sum 3 by adding the first coin to it. Because the best solution for sum 2 that we found has 2 coins, the new solution for sum 3 will have 3 coins. Now let's take the second coin with value equal to 3. The sum for which this coin needs to be added to make 3 , is 0. We know that sum 0 is made up of 0 coins. Thus we can make a sum of 3 with only one coin - 3. We see that it's better than the previous found solution for sum 3 , which was composed of 3 coins. We update it and mark it as having only 1 coin. The same we do for sum 4, and get a solution of 2 coins - 1+3. And so on.
Resignation letter for relocation problem sample
Resignation letter for relocation problem
Today's Date
Manager's Name
Company Name
Company Address
Dear Mr./Ms. (Manager's Name)
Please accept this letter as notice of my resignation from my position of Current Position effective Date of Resignation.
I am tendering my resignation because I cannot relocate to New Location.My family and I have strong ties to Current Location.
We have been living here for many years. My children have been studying here for a long time. We have many friends and relatives living here. After careful consideration, I have decided that I have to resign.
Sincerely,
(Your Name)
cc: HR Manager
Today's Date
Manager's Name
Company Name
Company Address
Dear Mr./Ms. (Manager's Name)
Please accept this letter as notice of my resignation from my position of Current Position effective Date of Resignation.
I am tendering my resignation because I cannot relocate to New Location.My family and I have strong ties to Current Location.
We have been living here for many years. My children have been studying here for a long time. We have many friends and relatives living here. After careful consideration, I have decided that I have to resign.
Sincerely,
(Your Name)
cc: HR Manager
Resignation withdraw letter sample
Resignation withdraw letter sample
Dear ______,
I realize that my resignation may have caused inconvenience and wish to apologise for that. I hereby withdraw my resignation of (date you resigned).
The conditions surrounding my resignation have changed and I would appreciate the opportunity to resume my job. I undertake to perform to the best of my abilities. Although I realise the process may not be that straightforward, I will await your reply.
I enjoy working at the company and hope to make a positive contribution to the team. Thank you for considering the withdrawal.
Yours sincerely,
(Your name &designaion)
Dear ______,
I realize that my resignation may have caused inconvenience and wish to apologise for that. I hereby withdraw my resignation of (date you resigned).
The conditions surrounding my resignation have changed and I would appreciate the opportunity to resume my job. I undertake to perform to the best of my abilities. Although I realise the process may not be that straightforward, I will await your reply.
I enjoy working at the company and hope to make a positive contribution to the team. Thank you for considering the withdrawal.
Yours sincerely,
(Your name &designaion)
Writing resignation letter tips
Writing resignation letter tips
Below are some quick tips to keep in mind when writing a letter of resignation.
1)Always type your letter, never hand write it. Use a standard business font and format.
2)Keep the letter simple, and use a positive tone.
3)Date your letter so that it is clear when you submitted your resignation.
4)Address and deliver your letter directly to your boss or supervisor.
5)State what position you are resigning from. Do not forget to include the correct title.
6)Make sure you include when your last day of work will be. Typically, this will be two weeks after the date at the top of your letter; but this does not always hold true.
7)Proofread. Proofread. Proofread.
8)Sign the letter to make it official.
9)Remember to save a copy for your records. You never know when you may need it.
...Keep smiling....www.cinterviews.com
Below are some quick tips to keep in mind when writing a letter of resignation.
1)Always type your letter, never hand write it. Use a standard business font and format.
2)Keep the letter simple, and use a positive tone.
3)Date your letter so that it is clear when you submitted your resignation.
4)Address and deliver your letter directly to your boss or supervisor.
5)State what position you are resigning from. Do not forget to include the correct title.
6)Make sure you include when your last day of work will be. Typically, this will be two weeks after the date at the top of your letter; but this does not always hold true.
7)Proofread. Proofread. Proofread.
8)Sign the letter to make it official.
9)Remember to save a copy for your records. You never know when you may need it.
...Keep smiling....www.cinterviews.com
Questions to ask prospective employers
Questions to ask prospective employers
1. What is your software process?
2. Tell me about your version control.
3. What is your build process?
4. Do you do continuous integration?
5. Tell me about your bug tracking system.
6. How is unit testing done? How is system testing done?
7. Tell me about your Quality Assurance.
8. How many hours per week do people usually work?
9. What motivates your employees?
10. Why is there an opening?
11. What are your distinct advantages in the marketplace?
12. How much training per year do you offer?
13. Do you have a Wiki to share developer knowledge?
The below questions to be asked wth care
14. How many training courses did you go to last year?
15.How many hours per week do people usually work? How many hours do you work?
16. What is the best thing you like about about working here?
17. What is the worst thing about about working here?
18. Why did the last person leave?
1. What is your software process?
2. Tell me about your version control.
3. What is your build process?
4. Do you do continuous integration?
5. Tell me about your bug tracking system.
6. How is unit testing done? How is system testing done?
7. Tell me about your Quality Assurance.
8. How many hours per week do people usually work?
9. What motivates your employees?
10. Why is there an opening?
11. What are your distinct advantages in the marketplace?
12. How much training per year do you offer?
13. Do you have a Wiki to share developer knowledge?
The below questions to be asked wth care
14. How many training courses did you go to last year?
15.How many hours per week do people usually work? How many hours do you work?
16. What is the best thing you like about about working here?
17. What is the worst thing about about working here?
18. Why did the last person leave?
Passion for development Interview Questions
Passion for development Interview Questions
1)Tell me about your last project.
2)Tell me about your part in the release of some important software?Did you enjoy it? and what you learnt in it?
3)What are some influential software books you've read lately?
4)What are your favorite technical web sites and blogs?
5)Are you doing any interesting personal web projects?
6)What do you like about software?
1)Tell me about your last project.
2)Tell me about your part in the release of some important software?Did you enjoy it? and what you learnt in it?
3)What are some influential software books you've read lately?
4)What are your favorite technical web sites and blogs?
5)Are you doing any interesting personal web projects?
6)What do you like about software?
Webdeveloper Interview questions
Webdeveloper Interview questions
1. What is the difference between GET and POST in web forms? How do you decide which to use?
2. Tell me about HTTP?
3. What is Service Oriented Architecture? Advantages and Disadvantages?
4. What JavaScript libraries have you used?
5. What is the advantage of using CSS? What are some of the irritating limitations of CSS?
1. What is the difference between GET and POST in web forms? How do you decide which to use?
2. Tell me about HTTP?
3. What is Service Oriented Architecture? Advantages and Disadvantages?
4. What JavaScript libraries have you used?
5. What is the advantage of using CSS? What are some of the irritating limitations of CSS?
About Experience Interview Questions
About Experience Interview Questions
1. What software have you used for bug tracking and version control?
2. What do you use for unit testing? GUI testing?
3. Describe an interesting class you have designed.
4. Have you been doing code reviews? What was the format?
5. When and how do you optimize code?
6. Describe your favorite build environment?
1. What software have you used for bug tracking and version control?
2. What do you use for unit testing? GUI testing?
3. Describe an interesting class you have designed.
4. Have you been doing code reviews? What was the format?
5. When and how do you optimize code?
6. Describe your favorite build environment?
Software Engineering Skills Interview Questions
Software Engineering Skills Interview Questions
1. What is Object Oriented Design? What are the benefits and drawbacks?
2. What is the Agile software philosophy?
3. What is the Lean software philosophy?
4. Have you looked at "Domain Driven Design"?
5. What are the benefits of Dependency Injection?
6. What books have you read on software engineering that you thought were good?
7. What are the really important aspects of software development?
8. Tell me about your philosophy of database design. Database tools?
9. What are important aspects of GUI design?
10. What Object Relational Mapping tools have you used?
11. Tell me about the Model-View-Controller pattern and why it's important?
12. What is Test Driven Development and Design? Why is it important?
13. Describe some of the software patterns you have used?
14. How do you design scalable applications?
15. What is continuous integration?
16. What is the REST architecture pattern?
17. How would you design a solution to the following problem?Giving some problem?
1. What is Object Oriented Design? What are the benefits and drawbacks?
2. What is the Agile software philosophy?
3. What is the Lean software philosophy?
4. Have you looked at "Domain Driven Design"?
5. What are the benefits of Dependency Injection?
6. What books have you read on software engineering that you thought were good?
7. What are the really important aspects of software development?
8. Tell me about your philosophy of database design. Database tools?
9. What are important aspects of GUI design?
10. What Object Relational Mapping tools have you used?
11. Tell me about the Model-View-Controller pattern and why it's important?
12. What is Test Driven Development and Design? Why is it important?
13. Describe some of the software patterns you have used?
14. How do you design scalable applications?
15. What is continuous integration?
16. What is the REST architecture pattern?
17. How would you design a solution to the following problem?Giving some problem?
General HR Personality Background Interview Questions
General Personality Background Interview Questions
1)Tell us a little bit about yourself.
2)Why are you leaving your current job?
3)What would you like to do?
4)What do you like about your current/former job? What don't you like?
5)How would you rate your current/former management?
6)What motivates you?
7)Would you like to be the team leader or team member?
8)Tell me about a conflict at a previous job and how you resolved it?
1)Tell us a little bit about yourself.
2)Why are you leaving your current job?
3)What would you like to do?
4)What do you like about your current/former job? What don't you like?
5)How would you rate your current/former management?
6)What motivates you?
7)Would you like to be the team leader or team member?
8)Tell me about a conflict at a previous job and how you resolved it?
Barclays Interview Questions for Developer
Barclays Interview Questions for C++ Developer
1)How to find the maximum rectangle in a histogram, and write C++ to implement it?
2)A big cube is made of 1000 small cubes. How many small cubes are there at the surface?
3)Explain how compilers work?
4)What is Hashtable Explain?
5)Explain difference between java ans c#?
6)Explain your project design?Whatis the design pattern you used and why?
7)What is polymorphism?
8)You have 100 coins, 29 of them are heads, rest are tails. You are BLINDFOLDED. You can reverse any coin. Your task is to divide this 100 coins into two groups in which there will be the same number of heads?
1)How to find the maximum rectangle in a histogram, and write C++ to implement it?
2)A big cube is made of 1000 small cubes. How many small cubes are there at the surface?
3)Explain how compilers work?
4)What is Hashtable Explain?
5)Explain difference between java ans c#?
6)Explain your project design?Whatis the design pattern you used and why?
7)What is polymorphism?
8)You have 100 coins, 29 of them are heads, rest are tails. You are BLINDFOLDED. You can reverse any coin. Your task is to divide this 100 coins into two groups in which there will be the same number of heads?
BloombergLP Financial Software Developer Interview
BloombergLP Financial Software Developer Interview
1)How would you find a number in a dataset of unknown size?
2)How would you write a spellcheck program that would highlight misspelled words as you typed?
3)What is a dangling reference? Give sample code?
4)How do you avoid dangling pointers and dangling references? Can you have a const reference to an object i.e. MyClass& const refToObj;? Does having a const* to an object guarantee safety from seg faults? What is the best alternative?
5)What happens when you get a segmentation fault? how do you get it and how is it implemented?
6)Lets say there is a lottery. You get 6 numbers and in order to win, the sum of the first 3 numbers have to equal the sum of the second 3. How many possible chances are there to win?
7)There are 9 stones on the table, one is little heavier that other 8. Using a medical scales, how would you find the heavier one with exactly 2 measurements?
8)Find the most populous character in a string? Most optimal solution is desired?
9)How you detect a cycle in a graph?
1)How would you find a number in a dataset of unknown size?
2)How would you write a spellcheck program that would highlight misspelled words as you typed?
3)What is a dangling reference? Give sample code?
4)How do you avoid dangling pointers and dangling references? Can you have a const reference to an object i.e. MyClass& const refToObj;? Does having a const* to an object guarantee safety from seg faults? What is the best alternative?
5)What happens when you get a segmentation fault? how do you get it and how is it implemented?
6)Lets say there is a lottery. You get 6 numbers and in order to win, the sum of the first 3 numbers have to equal the sum of the second 3. How many possible chances are there to win?
7)There are 9 stones on the table, one is little heavier that other 8. Using a medical scales, how would you find the heavier one with exactly 2 measurements?
8)Find the most populous character in a string? Most optimal solution is desired?
9)How you detect a cycle in a graph?
Bloomberg Telephonic Interview Financial software developer questions
Bloomberg Financial software developer Interview questions
1)Describe a class you wrote.
2)Have you ever used any designed patterns? If yes, explain what it does and how it is used.
3)I picked singleton so he made me explain what is private and public for this class. Why do we need a private constructor?
4)What is factory method?
5)This is where "virtual constructor" came up. He asked me if we can have one of those why and why not?
6)What needs to happen with a base classes destructor? (I think he was trying to get virtual destructors out of me.)
7)Why do we need a virtual destructor?
8)How do you list the processes on a linux system?
9)What is context switching?
10)How do 2 threads communicate/share info?
11)What's a virtual table?
12)Given map, hash table and linked list, which one is the fastest for seaching?(seach complexity)
13)How does a hash table work?
14)How does map work?
1)Describe a class you wrote.
2)Have you ever used any designed patterns? If yes, explain what it does and how it is used.
3)I picked singleton so he made me explain what is private and public for this class. Why do we need a private constructor?
4)What is factory method?
5)This is where "virtual constructor" came up. He asked me if we can have one of those why and why not?
6)What needs to happen with a base classes destructor? (I think he was trying to get virtual destructors out of me.)
7)Why do we need a virtual destructor?
8)How do you list the processes on a linux system?
9)What is context switching?
10)How do 2 threads communicate/share info?
11)What's a virtual table?
12)Given map, hash table and linked list, which one is the fastest for seaching?(seach complexity)
13)How does a hash table work?
14)How does map work?
What is Constructor in cpp
What is Constructor in cpp
Constructors do not have return type and so they cannot return error codes. How are errors or exceptions handled in constructors? What if the calls that you make in the constructor can actually throw exceptions? How do you let the caller know something bad happened in a constructor?
There are a few ways to do robust error/exception handling in constructors
1. Do as little in the constructor has you can. Then provide an Init() function in the constructor, which does the normal initialization stuff. The user can then call this function after creating an object. The problem here is, its up to the user to actually call the Init() function. The user could potentially miss this step, making this method error prone. However, there are a lot of places where this methodology is used. You are trying to eliminate error handling in the constructor by using this method
2. Another way to do this is by putting the object in a Zombie state. This is one approach you can take especially if you do not have the option of using exceptions. When you go with this option, you will also to do provide a function that will check the state of the object after construction. The downsides to this option is that, its up to the user to do these checks and the users will need to do this every time one attempts to create an object. It's usually always better and cleaner to throw an exception instead. Use the Zombie option as a last resort.
3. The downsides to the above methods can be reduced by making the constructor private or protected, expose a CreateInstance() public method, and do all the error handling here rather than leave it to the user. But sometimes, its not possible to handle all the error conditions in a generic manner and you will need to throw an exception.
4. If an exception is thrown in the constructor, the destructor will not get called. So you need to handle and clean up as much as you can before you leave the constructor. The best way to do this is using the "resource allocation is initialization" technique. I will cover this topic separately in a future post. But the basic idea is to assign resource allocation and cleanup to other objects. Basically, you are trying to get allocation out of the way (indirect) so that you don't have to do it explicitly. When you don't allocate something directly, you don't have to release it either because it will be done by the component or class who deals with it. E.g. If you need to allocate some memory or open up a file, You can use smart objects (smart pointer, auto_ptr, smart file handlers etc..) instead of calling new or fopen directly. When you do this, and if an exception is thrown in your constructor, the smart objects will automatically release the resources it acquired, as the stack unwinds. If you do not use the "resource allocation is initialization" technique, the user will need to wrap the statements in try/catch block and rethrow after cleaning up the mess, something like what the finally block does in Java or C#. Although this works in theory, it's up to the user to make this work and it also always a source of errors and bugs (esp. memory and handle leaks) and is messy
As you have seen, there is no "one size fits all" rule to do error/exception handling in constructors. I have listed the most commonly used methods and one of these should work most of the time.
Constructors do not have return type and so they cannot return error codes. How are errors or exceptions handled in constructors? What if the calls that you make in the constructor can actually throw exceptions? How do you let the caller know something bad happened in a constructor?
There are a few ways to do robust error/exception handling in constructors
1. Do as little in the constructor has you can. Then provide an Init() function in the constructor, which does the normal initialization stuff. The user can then call this function after creating an object. The problem here is, its up to the user to actually call the Init() function. The user could potentially miss this step, making this method error prone. However, there are a lot of places where this methodology is used. You are trying to eliminate error handling in the constructor by using this method
2. Another way to do this is by putting the object in a Zombie state. This is one approach you can take especially if you do not have the option of using exceptions. When you go with this option, you will also to do provide a function that will check the state of the object after construction. The downsides to this option is that, its up to the user to do these checks and the users will need to do this every time one attempts to create an object. It's usually always better and cleaner to throw an exception instead. Use the Zombie option as a last resort.
3. The downsides to the above methods can be reduced by making the constructor private or protected, expose a CreateInstance() public method, and do all the error handling here rather than leave it to the user. But sometimes, its not possible to handle all the error conditions in a generic manner and you will need to throw an exception.
4. If an exception is thrown in the constructor, the destructor will not get called. So you need to handle and clean up as much as you can before you leave the constructor. The best way to do this is using the "resource allocation is initialization" technique. I will cover this topic separately in a future post. But the basic idea is to assign resource allocation and cleanup to other objects. Basically, you are trying to get allocation out of the way (indirect) so that you don't have to do it explicitly. When you don't allocate something directly, you don't have to release it either because it will be done by the component or class who deals with it. E.g. If you need to allocate some memory or open up a file, You can use smart objects (smart pointer, auto_ptr, smart file handlers etc..) instead of calling new or fopen directly. When you do this, and if an exception is thrown in your constructor, the smart objects will automatically release the resources it acquired, as the stack unwinds. If you do not use the "resource allocation is initialization" technique, the user will need to wrap the statements in try/catch block and rethrow after cleaning up the mess, something like what the finally block does in Java or C#. Although this works in theory, it's up to the user to make this work and it also always a source of errors and bugs (esp. memory and handle leaks) and is messy
As you have seen, there is no "one size fits all" rule to do error/exception handling in constructors. I have listed the most commonly used methods and one of these should work most of the time.
Swap variables without additional space
Swap variables without additional space
Swapping variables is a very common operation used it tons of algorithms like sorting etc. The most common and obvious technique is using of a temporary variable to swap values between two variables
void swap(int &i, int &j)
{
int temp = i;
i = j;
j = temp;
}
Instead of writing a separate function for each data type, you could write a MACRO or templatize the function.
Swapping without using a temporary variable is an age old trick and there are a few ways to do this. You could use of the basic arithmetic operations like +,-,/,*
1: void swap(int &i, int &j)
2: {
3: i=i+j;
4: j=i-j;
5: i=i-j;
6: }
The technique involves storing the sum of variables in one of them and then extracting it back by subtracting the other number. There are different variants to this technique. E.g, instead of starting by storing the sum, you could store the difference, product or the quotient. The last two could lead you to round-off and integer division errors. However all of them have one fundamental flaw. Its in line 3, and the issue is that this could lead to an overflow error.
This is another technique the gets you around these issues; the XOR Swapping technique
void swap(int &i, int &j)
{
i = i ^ j;
j = j ^ i;
i = i ^ j;
}
This is an elegant technique and should work well with any primitive data type and you could write a simple MACRO like
#define SWAP(i, j) (((i) ^= (j)), ((j) ^= (i)), ((i) ^= (j)))
Although, the XOR technique gets rid of the other issues like overflow and round off errors that we encountered in the previous technique, the lands in into yet another issues; This does not work when you try to swap the same memory location. However if can get around this by a simple 'if' check or a more elegant OR check like
#define SWAP(i, j) ( (i==j) ((i) ^= (j)), ((j) ^= (i)), ((i) ^= (j)))
The first OR condition (i == j) is checked before the actual SWAP. (You do not need a SWAP if the both memory locations hold the same data)
Swapping variables is a very common operation used it tons of algorithms like sorting etc. The most common and obvious technique is using of a temporary variable to swap values between two variables
void swap(int &i, int &j)
{
int temp = i;
i = j;
j = temp;
}
Instead of writing a separate function for each data type, you could write a MACRO or templatize the function.
Swapping without using a temporary variable is an age old trick and there are a few ways to do this. You could use of the basic arithmetic operations like +,-,/,*
1: void swap(int &i, int &j)
2: {
3: i=i+j;
4: j=i-j;
5: i=i-j;
6: }
The technique involves storing the sum of variables in one of them and then extracting it back by subtracting the other number. There are different variants to this technique. E.g, instead of starting by storing the sum, you could store the difference, product or the quotient. The last two could lead you to round-off and integer division errors. However all of them have one fundamental flaw. Its in line 3, and the issue is that this could lead to an overflow error.
This is another technique the gets you around these issues; the XOR Swapping technique
void swap(int &i, int &j)
{
i = i ^ j;
j = j ^ i;
i = i ^ j;
}
This is an elegant technique and should work well with any primitive data type and you could write a simple MACRO like
#define SWAP(i, j) (((i) ^= (j)), ((j) ^= (i)), ((i) ^= (j)))
Although, the XOR technique gets rid of the other issues like overflow and round off errors that we encountered in the previous technique, the lands in into yet another issues; This does not work when you try to swap the same memory location. However if can get around this by a simple 'if' check or a more elegant OR check like
#define SWAP(i, j) ( (i==j) ((i) ^= (j)), ((j) ^= (i)), ((i) ^= (j)))
The first OR condition (i == j) is checked before the actual SWAP. (You do not need a SWAP if the both memory locations hold the same data)
What is copyconstructure in cpp
What is copyconstructure in cpp
As the name suggests, a copy constructor is called whenever an object is copied. This happens in the following cases:
* When an object is create from another object during initialization (Class a = b)
* When an object is created from another object as a parameter to a constructor (Class a(b))
* When an object is passed by value as an argument to a function (function(Class a))
* When an object is return from a function (Class a; ... return a;)
* When an exception is thrown using this object type (Class a; .... throw a;)
Whenever an object copying scenario like the ones above is encountered, the copy constructor is invoked. A copy constructor can be either user defined or compiler defined. If the user does not define a copy constructor, then the default compiler defined copy constructor will be invoked during object copy scenarios. The default copy constructor is a bit-by-bit (member wise) copy. But often you will encounter situations where this is not desirable since this is just a shallow copy and sometimes you do not want an exact copy or you may want to do some custom resource management.
Class t1;
Class t2=t1; // Copy Constructor is invoked
Class t3;
t3=t1; // Assignment Operator is invoked
In the Code snippet above, the constructor is invoked twice, during the creation of objects t1 and t3. (Creation of t2 invokes the copy constructor). The destructor is invoked 3 times though. In cases like these, if the constructor allocates memory and the destructor frees it, you will see the t2's destructor will try to delete already deleted memory, if t1 is destroyed before t2 or vice-versa. Meaning, you are hosed. To prevent this, a user defined copy constructor needs to be provided. which doesn't do a simple bit-by-bit but rather assigns memory specifically for the object and does a deep copy if required.
To define a copy constructor for a class T, a constructor of the following format needs to be defined.
Class T
{
…
T(const T& t)
…
}
You need a reference because if it were T(T t), it would end in a infinite recursion. (Was that an oxymoron?). const because you are not changing the object in the constructor, you are just copying its contents
Some Rules of Thumb:
* Don't write a copy constructor if a bit-by-bit copy works for the class
* If you defined your own copy constructor, it probably because you needed a deep copy or some special resource management, in which case, you will need to release these resources at the end, which means you probably need to define a destructor and you may also want to think of overloading the assignment operator (beware of self-assignment)
As the name suggests, a copy constructor is called whenever an object is copied. This happens in the following cases:
* When an object is create from another object during initialization (Class a = b)
* When an object is created from another object as a parameter to a constructor (Class a(b))
* When an object is passed by value as an argument to a function (function(Class a))
* When an object is return from a function (Class a; ... return a;)
* When an exception is thrown using this object type (Class a; .... throw a;)
Whenever an object copying scenario like the ones above is encountered, the copy constructor is invoked. A copy constructor can be either user defined or compiler defined. If the user does not define a copy constructor, then the default compiler defined copy constructor will be invoked during object copy scenarios. The default copy constructor is a bit-by-bit (member wise) copy. But often you will encounter situations where this is not desirable since this is just a shallow copy and sometimes you do not want an exact copy or you may want to do some custom resource management.
Class t1;
Class t2=t1; // Copy Constructor is invoked
Class t3;
t3=t1; // Assignment Operator is invoked
In the Code snippet above, the constructor is invoked twice, during the creation of objects t1 and t3. (Creation of t2 invokes the copy constructor). The destructor is invoked 3 times though. In cases like these, if the constructor allocates memory and the destructor frees it, you will see the t2's destructor will try to delete already deleted memory, if t1 is destroyed before t2 or vice-versa. Meaning, you are hosed. To prevent this, a user defined copy constructor needs to be provided. which doesn't do a simple bit-by-bit but rather assigns memory specifically for the object and does a deep copy if required.
To define a copy constructor for a class T, a constructor of the following format needs to be defined.
Class T
{
…
T(const T& t)
…
}
You need a reference because if it were T(T t), it would end in a infinite recursion. (Was that an oxymoron?). const because you are not changing the object in the constructor, you are just copying its contents
Some Rules of Thumb:
* Don't write a copy constructor if a bit-by-bit copy works for the class
* If you defined your own copy constructor, it probably because you needed a deep copy or some special resource management, in which case, you will need to release these resources at the end, which means you probably need to define a destructor and you may also want to think of overloading the assignment operator (beware of self-assignment)
Different types of buffer overruns,Buffer over flow
Different types of buffer overruns,Buffer over flow
Buffer Overruns is one of top sources of security issues today. These are typically caused by trusting input data to a function that is external and is unchecked. Most of the times, this is unintentionally invoked by bad sloppy code. However, when done intentionally by a hacker, this can cause havoc. Some of the most common, buffer overrun prone functions include strcpy, memcpy, strcat etc... In unintentional buffer overruns, this mostly results in writing to memory not owned by your processes address space. In such cases this would end, in an access violation or a core dump, causing the program to be aborted in most cases. However, these buffer overruns can be exploited to run arbitrary code on the machine, even code that is injected in by the attacker.
There are different types of buffer overruns.
Static Buffer Overruns: These type of buffer overruns occur, when a buffer that is declared on the stack is overwritten by copying more data than the buffer can hold. It so happens, that the variables (buffer in this case) declared on the stack are located next to the return address of the function's caller. As I mentioned above, this usually occurs when user input is unchecked, e.g. strcat. And because the return address is next to the buffer on the stack, overwriting the buffer, means overwriting the return address, which is what gets executed with the function returns. An attacker can carefully exploit the overrun in such a way the data that is overwriting the return address, is an address of a function that he wants to execute.
Heap Overruns: Like Stack Overruns, Heap overruns can also cause memory and stack corruption. But unlike contrary developer belief, although heap overruns are harder to exploit, they are definitely exploitable.
Array Indexing Errors (Overruns and Underruns): These type of errors are less exploited compared to static buffer overruns. You can think of an array as a block on memory (buffer) that you can index into and then read/'write' from that location. Bad array implementation do not check indices well before access the memory locations. Sloppy code like this can be exploited to run arbitrary code and create havoc. (Well, in some cases you may never ever now that your machine is freely accessible and controlled by the attacker :) ). Again, unlike contrary developer belief, don't be fooled that only memory past the end of the array can be exploited.
Format Strings Exploits: These type of exploits are not exactly buffer overruns, but they lead to the same class of problems. These errors are usually caused in functions that take in variable number of arguments, because there isn't a good way for the function to determine the number of arguments passed into these functions. (printf family in the CRT). The %n type field for printf represents the number of characters successfully written so far to the stream or buffer. This value is stored in the integer whose address is given as the argument. So, this can basically be used to write into memory of the processes address space. But how can an attacker inject such code? The answer lies to the way the sloppy programmer writes code ala printf(input), rather than printf("%s", input). The latter prevent the user from using his own format, since its already defined, unlike the earlier case, where the input can be manipulated to create the format string.
Buffer Overruns is one of top sources of security issues today. These are typically caused by trusting input data to a function that is external and is unchecked. Most of the times, this is unintentionally invoked by bad sloppy code. However, when done intentionally by a hacker, this can cause havoc. Some of the most common, buffer overrun prone functions include strcpy, memcpy, strcat etc... In unintentional buffer overruns, this mostly results in writing to memory not owned by your processes address space. In such cases this would end, in an access violation or a core dump, causing the program to be aborted in most cases. However, these buffer overruns can be exploited to run arbitrary code on the machine, even code that is injected in by the attacker.
There are different types of buffer overruns.
Static Buffer Overruns: These type of buffer overruns occur, when a buffer that is declared on the stack is overwritten by copying more data than the buffer can hold. It so happens, that the variables (buffer in this case) declared on the stack are located next to the return address of the function's caller. As I mentioned above, this usually occurs when user input is unchecked, e.g. strcat. And because the return address is next to the buffer on the stack, overwriting the buffer, means overwriting the return address, which is what gets executed with the function returns. An attacker can carefully exploit the overrun in such a way the data that is overwriting the return address, is an address of a function that he wants to execute.
Heap Overruns: Like Stack Overruns, Heap overruns can also cause memory and stack corruption. But unlike contrary developer belief, although heap overruns are harder to exploit, they are definitely exploitable.
Array Indexing Errors (Overruns and Underruns): These type of errors are less exploited compared to static buffer overruns. You can think of an array as a block on memory (buffer) that you can index into and then read/'write' from that location. Bad array implementation do not check indices well before access the memory locations. Sloppy code like this can be exploited to run arbitrary code and create havoc. (Well, in some cases you may never ever now that your machine is freely accessible and controlled by the attacker :) ). Again, unlike contrary developer belief, don't be fooled that only memory past the end of the array can be exploited.
Format Strings Exploits: These type of exploits are not exactly buffer overruns, but they lead to the same class of problems. These errors are usually caused in functions that take in variable number of arguments, because there isn't a good way for the function to determine the number of arguments passed into these functions. (printf family in the CRT). The %n type field for printf represents the number of characters successfully written so far to the stream or buffer. This value is stored in the integer whose address is given as the argument. So, this can basically be used to write into memory of the processes address space. But how can an attacker inject such code? The answer lies to the way the sloppy programmer writes code ala printf(input), rather than printf("%s", input). The latter prevent the user from using his own format, since its already defined, unlike the earlier case, where the input can be manipulated to create the format string.
Company Finance Team Interview Questions
Company Financial Team Interview Questions
Q: Where is the market going?
Q: What major factors drive mergers and acquisitions?
Q: What is goodwill? How does it affect net income?
Q: What is working capital?
Q: What are deferred taxes?
Q:Can you describe a recent situation in which you accomplished an important objective in a brief period of time?
Q: How do you take challenges?
Q: Are you willing to work in shifts?
Q: What is the thing you like the most in the world? Why?
Q: What is the thing you dislike the most in the world? Why?
Q: What does success mean to you?
Q: How do you define failure?
Q: What is contingency liability?
Q: How do you value a company?
Q: You've been asked to reduce the budget by 8%. What criteria will you use in identifying the budget reductions?
Q: Who is a more senior creditor, a stockholder or a bondholder?
Q: What is the difference between accounts and finance?
Q: Explain fixed cost, variable cost and marginal cost?
Q: What is Break Even Point? What does it signify?
Q: What is the purpose of chargeback?
Q: What is MIS report and do you prepare it?
Q: Why are you leaving the organization you work for?
Q: How much time do you need to join the organization?
Q: Are you aggressive?
Q: What makes you a good manager?
Q: What motivates you the most?
Q: What skills and abilities do you have?
Q: Is there anything you want to ask?
Q:If you were hired for this job, what areas would you make an immediate impact?
Q:In what areas do you think you will need guidance?
Q:How will you approach learning this "new" job?
Q:How will you approach acquiring new skill sets?
Q:Describe the most difficult situation you have faced in your career and how you managed it.
Q:Describe some problems you encountered in your most recent position and ow you resolved them.
Q:What specific steps do you utilize in solving workplace problems?
Q: What experience have you had in fixed assets accounting?
Q: How can you create Budgets for daily pods?
Q: How to use special and pair value sets?
Q: What is consolidation ?
Q: Why depreciation is not charged on land?
Q: Can u explain me the flow in General ledger?
Q: What is meant by group chart of accounts in sap fico ?
Q: How important does Accounts receivable for small business and why?
Q: What are the goals of Accounts receivable?
Q: What are the powerful softwares that could be used for doing efficient Accounts receivable?
Q: What are the strategies to be followed for preparing Accounts receivable?
Q: How debtors play its role in Accounts receivable?
Q: Who is responsible for maintaining the Accounts receivable in an organization?
Q: How important is Accounts receivable to business?
Q: What do you mean by Accounts payable cycle?
Q: What is Trial Balance?
Q: What is difference between account payable and bills payable?
Q: How to account freight cost, handling charges,purchase tax at the time of raising a Purchase Order?
Q: What is Reconciliation Statement ?
Q: How do you answer this question "what is company code".
Q: Is it necessary to create Sundry creditors?
Q: What is the meaning of TDS? How it is charged?
Q: What is interest on Capital?
Q: What is Pool rate?
Q: What the procedures or process involved in the preparation for the audit?
Q: What is Web Audit?
Q: What are the different types of internal audit?
Q: What is the difference between an internal audit and the annual external audit?
Q: What is Internal Audit?
Q: What is meant by Single Audit process?
Q: Where is Audit Data Stored?
Q: What is meant by computer auditing?
Q: What are the reasons for getting audited?
Q: What do 'income assessed' and 'non-income assessed' mean?
Q: What is authorized share capital?
Q: What is paid up share capital?
Q: How much depreciation to be calculated for fixed assets older than 5 years?
Q: What is accumulated depreciation?
Q: What are the journal entries which get passed from asset purchasing to asset retirement?
Q: What is fictitious assets?
Q: What is the difference between the different depreciation methods?
Q: What are the activities present in payroll task?
Q: What is Payroll Disbursements Journal?
Q: What are the steps in Payroll Management?
Q: What is the software efficient for carrying out payroll tasks?
Q: What is the difference between paycheck and Payslip?
Q: How advantage is payroll for small business?
Q: What is Payroll Journal?
Q: Where is the market going?
Q: What major factors drive mergers and acquisitions?
Q: What is goodwill? How does it affect net income?
Q: What is working capital?
Q: What are deferred taxes?
Q:Can you describe a recent situation in which you accomplished an important objective in a brief period of time?
Q: How do you take challenges?
Q: Are you willing to work in shifts?
Q: What is the thing you like the most in the world? Why?
Q: What is the thing you dislike the most in the world? Why?
Q: What does success mean to you?
Q: How do you define failure?
Q: What is contingency liability?
Q: How do you value a company?
Q: You've been asked to reduce the budget by 8%. What criteria will you use in identifying the budget reductions?
Q: Who is a more senior creditor, a stockholder or a bondholder?
Q: What is the difference between accounts and finance?
Q: Explain fixed cost, variable cost and marginal cost?
Q: What is Break Even Point? What does it signify?
Q: What is the purpose of chargeback?
Q: What is MIS report and do you prepare it?
Q: Why are you leaving the organization you work for?
Q: How much time do you need to join the organization?
Q: Are you aggressive?
Q: What makes you a good manager?
Q: What motivates you the most?
Q: What skills and abilities do you have?
Q: Is there anything you want to ask?
Q:If you were hired for this job, what areas would you make an immediate impact?
Q:In what areas do you think you will need guidance?
Q:How will you approach learning this "new" job?
Q:How will you approach acquiring new skill sets?
Q:Describe the most difficult situation you have faced in your career and how you managed it.
Q:Describe some problems you encountered in your most recent position and ow you resolved them.
Q:What specific steps do you utilize in solving workplace problems?
Q: What experience have you had in fixed assets accounting?
Q: How can you create Budgets for daily pods?
Q: How to use special and pair value sets?
Q: What is consolidation ?
Q: Why depreciation is not charged on land?
Q: Can u explain me the flow in General ledger?
Q: What is meant by group chart of accounts in sap fico ?
Q: How important does Accounts receivable for small business and why?
Q: What are the goals of Accounts receivable?
Q: What are the powerful softwares that could be used for doing efficient Accounts receivable?
Q: What are the strategies to be followed for preparing Accounts receivable?
Q: How debtors play its role in Accounts receivable?
Q: Who is responsible for maintaining the Accounts receivable in an organization?
Q: How important is Accounts receivable to business?
Q: What do you mean by Accounts payable cycle?
Q: What is Trial Balance?
Q: What is difference between account payable and bills payable?
Q: How to account freight cost, handling charges,purchase tax at the time of raising a Purchase Order?
Q: What is Reconciliation Statement ?
Q: How do you answer this question "what is company code".
Q: Is it necessary to create Sundry creditors?
Q: What is the meaning of TDS? How it is charged?
Q: What is interest on Capital?
Q: What is Pool rate?
Q: What the procedures or process involved in the preparation for the audit?
Q: What is Web Audit?
Q: What are the different types of internal audit?
Q: What is the difference between an internal audit and the annual external audit?
Q: What is Internal Audit?
Q: What is meant by Single Audit process?
Q: Where is Audit Data Stored?
Q: What is meant by computer auditing?
Q: What are the reasons for getting audited?
Q: What do 'income assessed' and 'non-income assessed' mean?
Q: What is authorized share capital?
Q: What is paid up share capital?
Q: How much depreciation to be calculated for fixed assets older than 5 years?
Q: What is accumulated depreciation?
Q: What are the journal entries which get passed from asset purchasing to asset retirement?
Q: What is fictitious assets?
Q: What is the difference between the different depreciation methods?
Q: What are the activities present in payroll task?
Q: What is Payroll Disbursements Journal?
Q: What are the steps in Payroll Management?
Q: What is the software efficient for carrying out payroll tasks?
Q: What is the difference between paycheck and Payslip?
Q: How advantage is payroll for small business?
Q: What is Payroll Journal?
Bitwise Operators Interview Questions
Bitwise Operators Interview Questions
1.In which numbering system can the binary number 1011011111000101 be easily converted to?
a)Decimal system
b)Hexadecimal system
c)Octal system
d)No need to convert
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Hexadecimal system is better, because each 4-digit binary represents one Hexadecimal digit.
2.Which bitwise operator is suitable for turning off a particular bit in a number?
a)&& operator
b)& operator
c)|| operator
d)! operator
Answer: Option B
3.Which bitwise operator is suitable for turning on a particular bit in a number?
a)&& operator
b)& operator
c)|| operator
d)! operator
Answer: Option D
4.Which bitwise operator is suitable for checking whether a particular bit is on or off?
a)&& operator
b)& operator
c)|| operator
d)! operator
Answer: Option B
5.Left shifting a number by 1 is always equivalent to multiplying it by 2?
a)True
b)False
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
0001 => 1
0010 => 2
0100 => 4
1000 => 8
1.In which numbering system can the binary number 1011011111000101 be easily converted to?
a)Decimal system
b)Hexadecimal system
c)Octal system
d)No need to convert
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Hexadecimal system is better, because each 4-digit binary represents one Hexadecimal digit.
2.Which bitwise operator is suitable for turning off a particular bit in a number?
a)&& operator
b)& operator
c)|| operator
d)! operator
Answer: Option B
3.Which bitwise operator is suitable for turning on a particular bit in a number?
a)&& operator
b)& operator
c)|| operator
d)! operator
Answer: Option D
4.Which bitwise operator is suitable for checking whether a particular bit is on or off?
a)&& operator
b)& operator
c)|| operator
d)! operator
Answer: Option B
5.Left shifting a number by 1 is always equivalent to multiplying it by 2?
a)True
b)False
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
0001 => 1
0010 => 2
0100 => 4
1000 => 8
ISTQB Written Question Paper
ISTQB Written Question Paper
Q1. Deciding how much testing is enough should take into account:-
i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team
a) i, ii, iii are true and iv is false
b) i, iv are true and ii is false
c) i, ii are true and iii, iv are false
d) ii, iii, iv are true and i is false
Q2. Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques, test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing, testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements, architecture, design, interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
a) i, ii, iv are true and iii is false
b) i, iv are true and ii is false
c) i, ii are true and iii, iv are false
d) ii, iii, iv are true and i is false
Q3. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Implementation and execution
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q4. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Identify the invalid Equivalence class value.
a. CLASS
b. cLASS
c. CLass
d. CLa01ss
Q5. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% the next £28000 is taxed at 22%. Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
Q6. Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are :
a) Designed by persons who write the software under test
b) Designed by a person from a different section
c) Designed by a person from a different organization
d) Designed by another person
Q7. We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing :-
a) User Acceptance Test Cases
b) Integration Level Test Cases
c) Unit Level Test Cases
d) Program specifications
Q8. Validation involves which of the following:
i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
a) Options i, ii, iii, iv are true.
b) ii is true and i, iii, iv are false
c) i, ii, iii are true and iv is false
d) iii is true and i, ii, iv are false
Q9. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a) Component testing
b) Non-functional system testing
c) User acceptance testing
d) Maintenance testing
Q10. What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room
B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room
a) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
b) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Gold.
c) A – Offer upgrade to Silver, B – Offer upgrade to Silver.
d) A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
Q11. Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:
a) Re Testing
b) Confirmation Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Negative Testing
Q12. Impact Analysis helps to decide :-
a) How much regression testing should be done.
b) Exit Criteria
c) How many more test cases need to written.
d) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing
Q13. Functional system testing is:
a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times
Q14. Consider the above state transition diagram of a switch.Which of the following represents an invalid state transition?
a) OFF to ON
b) ON to OFF
c) FAULT to ON
Q15. Peer Reviews are also called as :-
a) Inspection
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Formal Review
Q16. Consider the following statements:
i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
Q17. The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objective
b) Fixing defects found typically done by author
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations
Q18. Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:
i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
a) i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
b) i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
c) i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
Q19. Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?
a) Test Planning and Control
b) Test implementation and Execution
c) Requirement Analysis
d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting
Q20. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a) State transition testing
b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis
Q21. Success Factors for a review include:
i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.
a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
b) iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
d) ii is correct
Q22. Defects discovered by static analysis tools include:
i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures
a) i , ii,iii,iv is correct
b) iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.
c) i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect
d) iv, ii is correct
Q23. Test Conditions are derived from :-
a) Specifications
b) Test Cases
c) Test Data
d) Test Design
Q24. Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:-
a) Equivalance partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques.
b) Equivalence partitioning , Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques.
c) Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
d) Equivalence Partioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.
Q25. Regression testing should be performed:
i. every week
ii. after the software has changed
iii. as often as possible
iv. when the environment has changed
v. when the project manager says
a) i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false
b) ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false
c) ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
d) ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false
Q26. Benefits of Independent Testing
a) Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers
b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
c) Independent Testers cannot identify defects.
d) Independent Testers can test better than developers
Q27. Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :-
Read P
Read Q
If p+q > 100
thenPrint “Large”End if
If p > 50 then
Print “pLarge”
End if
a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
b) Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2
Q28. Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage :-
Disc = 0
Order-qty = 0
Read Order-qty
If Order-qty >=20 then
Disc = 0.05
If Order-qty >=100 then
Disc =0.1
End if
End if
a) Statement coverage is 4
b) Statement coverage is 1
c) Statement coverage is 3
d) Statement Coverage is 2
Q29. The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : -
a) Anomaly Report
b) Defect Report
c) Test Defect Report
d) Test Incident Report
Q30. Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader:
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
Q31. Features of White Box Testing Technique :-
i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program.
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also checks for functionality.
a) i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
b) iii is true and i,ii, iv are false
c) ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false
d) iii and iv are true and i,ii are false
Q32. Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?
i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis.
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.
iv. Analyzing lessons.
a) i , ii , iv are true and iii is false
b) i , ii , iii are true and iv is false
c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false
d) All of above are true
Q33. Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :-
a) The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.
b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.
c) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.
d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.
Q34. Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?
a) Top down
b) Big-bang
c) Bottom up
d) Functional incrementation.
Q35. Drivers are also known as:
i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffolding
a) i , ii are true and iii is false
b) i , iii are true and ii is false
c) ii , iii are true and i is false
d) All of the above are true
Q36. Exit Criteria may consist of :-
i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.
b) i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
c) ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
d) iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect
Q37. Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:-
i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
b) i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
c) i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect
d) i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect
Q38. The selection of a test approach should consider the context :-
i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team
a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.
Q39. In case of Large Systems :-
a) Only few tests should be run
b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk
c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed.
d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.
Q40. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as
a) Configuration Control
b) Status Accounting
c) Configuration Identification
d) Configuration Identification
Answers are below
Q1. Deciding how much testing is enough should take into account:-
i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team
a) i, ii, iii are true and iv is false
b) i, iv are true and ii is false
c) i, ii are true and iii, iv are false
d) ii, iii, iv are true and i is false
Q2. Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques, test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing, testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements, architecture, design, interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
a) i, ii, iv are true and iii is false
b) i, iv are true and ii is false
c) i, ii are true and iii, iv are false
d) ii, iii, iv are true and i is false
Q3. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Implementation and execution
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q4. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Identify the invalid Equivalence class value.
a. CLASS
b. cLASS
c. CLass
d. CLa01ss
Q5. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% the next £28000 is taxed at 22%. Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
Q6. Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are :
a) Designed by persons who write the software under test
b) Designed by a person from a different section
c) Designed by a person from a different organization
d) Designed by another person
Q7. We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing :-
a) User Acceptance Test Cases
b) Integration Level Test Cases
c) Unit Level Test Cases
d) Program specifications
Q8. Validation involves which of the following:
i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
a) Options i, ii, iii, iv are true.
b) ii is true and i, iii, iv are false
c) i, ii, iii are true and iv is false
d) iii is true and i, ii, iv are false
Q9. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a) Component testing
b) Non-functional system testing
c) User acceptance testing
d) Maintenance testing
Q10. What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room
B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room
a) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
b) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Gold.
c) A – Offer upgrade to Silver, B – Offer upgrade to Silver.
d) A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
Q11. Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:
a) Re Testing
b) Confirmation Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Negative Testing
Q12. Impact Analysis helps to decide :-
a) How much regression testing should be done.
b) Exit Criteria
c) How many more test cases need to written.
d) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing
Q13. Functional system testing is:
a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times
Q14. Consider the above state transition diagram of a switch.Which of the following represents an invalid state transition?
a) OFF to ON
b) ON to OFF
c) FAULT to ON
Q15. Peer Reviews are also called as :-
a) Inspection
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Formal Review
Q16. Consider the following statements:
i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
Q17. The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objective
b) Fixing defects found typically done by author
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations
Q18. Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:
i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
a) i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
b) i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
c) i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
Q19. Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?
a) Test Planning and Control
b) Test implementation and Execution
c) Requirement Analysis
d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting
Q20. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a) State transition testing
b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis
Q21. Success Factors for a review include:
i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.
a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
b) iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
d) ii is correct
Q22. Defects discovered by static analysis tools include:
i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures
a) i , ii,iii,iv is correct
b) iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.
c) i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect
d) iv, ii is correct
Q23. Test Conditions are derived from :-
a) Specifications
b) Test Cases
c) Test Data
d) Test Design
Q24. Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:-
a) Equivalance partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques.
b) Equivalence partitioning , Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques.
c) Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
d) Equivalence Partioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.
Q25. Regression testing should be performed:
i. every week
ii. after the software has changed
iii. as often as possible
iv. when the environment has changed
v. when the project manager says
a) i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false
b) ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false
c) ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
d) ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false
Q26. Benefits of Independent Testing
a) Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers
b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
c) Independent Testers cannot identify defects.
d) Independent Testers can test better than developers
Q27. Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :-
Read P
Read Q
If p+q > 100
thenPrint “Large”End if
If p > 50 then
Print “pLarge”
End if
a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
b) Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2
Q28. Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage :-
Disc = 0
Order-qty = 0
Read Order-qty
If Order-qty >=20 then
Disc = 0.05
If Order-qty >=100 then
Disc =0.1
End if
End if
a) Statement coverage is 4
b) Statement coverage is 1
c) Statement coverage is 3
d) Statement Coverage is 2
Q29. The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : -
a) Anomaly Report
b) Defect Report
c) Test Defect Report
d) Test Incident Report
Q30. Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader:
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
Q31. Features of White Box Testing Technique :-
i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program.
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also checks for functionality.
a) i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
b) iii is true and i,ii, iv are false
c) ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false
d) iii and iv are true and i,ii are false
Q32. Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?
i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis.
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.
iv. Analyzing lessons.
a) i , ii , iv are true and iii is false
b) i , ii , iii are true and iv is false
c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false
d) All of above are true
Q33. Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :-
a) The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.
b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.
c) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.
d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.
Q34. Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?
a) Top down
b) Big-bang
c) Bottom up
d) Functional incrementation.
Q35. Drivers are also known as:
i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffolding
a) i , ii are true and iii is false
b) i , iii are true and ii is false
c) ii , iii are true and i is false
d) All of the above are true
Q36. Exit Criteria may consist of :-
i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.
b) i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
c) ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
d) iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect
Q37. Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:-
i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
b) i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
c) i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect
d) i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect
Q38. The selection of a test approach should consider the context :-
i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team
a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.
Q39. In case of Large Systems :-
a) Only few tests should be run
b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk
c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed.
d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.
Q40. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as
a) Configuration Control
b) Status Accounting
c) Configuration Identification
d) Configuration Identification
Answers are below
TCS Campus interview Paper
TCS Campus interview Paper
Written Test :
It consist of 35 questions all are quantitative. Time is 80 mins. Its special offer for our Siddhartha but in general time will be only 60 mins cut off was not declared.
1) A father has 7 penny’s with him and 1 water melon is for 1p, 2chickoos for 1p, 3 grapes foe 1p. He has three sons. How can he share the fruits equally?
Ans: 1 watermelon, 2 chickoos, 1 grape
2) Both questions are just 1st question but changed values.
3) There are two pipes A and B. If A filled 10 liters in hour B can fills 20 liters in same time. Likewise B can fill 10, 20, 40, 80,160. If B filled in (1/16) th of a tank in 3 hours, how much time will it take to fill completely?
Ans: 7 hours
4) In a market 4 man are standing. The average age of the four before 4 years is 45, aftyer some days one man is added and his age is 49. What is the average weight of all?
I am not sure but question is like this, very easy
5) A question on average speed
Hint: Formula{(2*v1*v2)/(v1+v2)}
6) A question on ratio of ages between ages. Just like ages of two persons is 6:5 sum of their ages is 44 ofter how many years the ratio would be 8:7?
Ans: 8 (may be some different value)
7) A large story bla bla bla at last speed of train given and time was given caliculate distance.
Hint: S=T*V
In some times you have to convert time from km/hr to m/sec or vise versa.
Formula: kmph–to–m/sec– multiply with (5/18)
m/sec –to–kmph– multiply with (18/5);
8) A question on cubes: A hollow cube of size 5 cm is taken, with a thickness of 1 cm. It is made of smaller cubes of size 1 cm. If 4 faces of the outer surface of the cube are painted, totally how many faces of the
smaller cubes remain unpainted?
a)800 b)488 c)900
9) A hare and a tortoise have a race along a circle of 100 yards diameter. The tortoise goes in one direction and the hare in the other. The hare starts after the tortoise has covered 1/5 of its distance and that too leisurely. The hare and tortoise meet when the hare has covered only 1/8 of the distance. By what factor should the hare increase its speed so as to tie the race?
a) 5 b) 37.80 c) 8
10) The IT giant Tirnop has recently crossed a head count of 150000 and earnings of $7 billion. As one of the forerunners in the technology front, Tirnop continues to lead the way in products and services in India. At Tirnop, all programmers are equal in every respect. They receive identical salaries ans also write code at the same rate.Suppose 12 such programmers take 12 minutes to write 12 lines of code in total. How many lines of code can be written by 72 programmers in 72 minutes?
a) 12 b) 72 c) 6
11) I am surprised that there are three qustions again repeated by just changing numbers(very easy )
12) This question is simple very simple this much long question is common in written exam neglect unnecessary data.
You have to learn how to catch necessary data from whole stuff.
13) Ferrari S.p.A. is an Italian sports car manufacturer based in Maranello, Italy. Founded by Enzo Ferrari in 1928 as Scuderia Ferrari, the company sponsored drivers and manufactured race cars before moving into production of street-legal vehicles in 1947 as Ferrari S.p.A. Throughout its history, the company has been noted for its continued participation in racing, especially in Formula One, where it has enjoyed great success. Rohit once bought a Ferrari. It could go 2 times as fast as Mohit’s old Mercedes. If the speed of Mohit’s Mercedes is 32 km/hr and the distance travelled by the Ferrari is 952 km, find the total time taken for Rohit to drive that distance.
a) 14.88 b) 476 c) 15.88
14) The teacher is testing a student’s proficiency in arithmetic and poses the following question. 1/3 of a number is 3 more than 1/6 of the same number. What is the number? Can you help the student find the answer?
a) 18 b) 21 c) 6
15) There are two water tanks A and B, A is much smaller than B. While water fills at the rate of one litre
every hour in A, it gets filled up like 10, 20, 40, 80, 160 in tank B. (At the end of first hour, B has 10 litres, second hour it has 20, and so on). If 1/32 of B’s volume is filled after 3 hours, what is the total duration required to fill it completely?
a) 7 hours b) 9 hours c) 10
16) Again this below question is repeated thrise by changing values.
Alok and Bhanu play the following min-max game. Given the expression where X, Y and Z are variables representing single digits (0 to 9), Alok would like to maximize N while Bhanu would like to minimize it. Towards this end, Alok chooses a single digit number and Bhanu substitutes this for a variable of her choice (X, Y or Z). Alok then chooses the next value and Bhanu, the variable to substitute the value. Finally Alok proposes the value for the remaining variable. Assuming both play to their optimal strategies, the value of N at the end of the game would be
a) 9 b)-18 c) 4
17) See this question how easy; but he twisted it in very nice way.
A circular dartboard of radius 1 foot is at a distance of 20 feet from you. You throw a dart at it and it
hits the dartboard at some point Q in the circle. What is the probability that Q is closer to the center
of the circle than the periphery?
a) 0.75 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) 0.25
18) On planet zorba, a solar blast has melted the ice caps on its equator. 8 years after the ice melts, tiny plantoids called echina start growing on the rocks. Echina grows in the form of a circle and the relationship between the diameter of this circle and the age of echina is given by the formula
d = 4 * √ (t-8) for t ≥ 8
Where the represents the diameter in mm and t the number of years since the solar blast. Jagan recorded the radius of some echina at a particular spot as 8mm. How many years back did the solar blast occur?
a) 24 b) 12 c) 8 d) 16
19) This is very simple but a little bit twisted.
For the FIFA world cup, Paul the octopus has been predicting the winner of each match with amazing success. It is rumored that in a match between 2 teams A and B, Paul picks A with the same probability as A’s chances of winning.
Let’s assume such rumors to be true and that in a match between Ghana and Bolivia, Ghana the stronger team has a probability of 2/3 of winning the game. What is the probability that Paul will correctly pick the winner of the Ghana-Bolivia game?
a) 4/9 b) 2/3 c) 1/9 d) 5/9
20) People {a1, a2, …, a36} meet and shake hands in a circular fashion. In other words, there are totally 36 handshakes involving the pairs, {a1, a2}, {a2, a3}, …, {a35, a36}, {a36, a1}. Then size of the smallest set of people such that the rest have shaken hands with at least one person in the set is
a) 12 b) 13 c) 18 d) 11
21) Alice and Bob play the following coins-on-a-stack game. 20 coins are stacked one above the other. One of them is a special (gold) coin and the rest are ordinary coins. The goal is to bring the gold coin to the top by repeatedly moving the topmost coin to another position in the stack. Alice starts and the players take turns. A turn consists of moving the coin on the top to a position i below the top coin (0 ≤ i ≤ 20). We will call this an i-move (thus a 0-move implies doing nothing). The proviso is that an i-move cannot be repeated; for example once a player makes a 2-move, on subsequent turns neither player can make a 2-move. If the gold coin happens to be on top when it’s a player’s turn then the player wins the game.
Initially, the gold coinis the third coin from the top. Then
In order to win, Alice’s first move should be a 0-move.
In order to win, Alice’s first move should be a 1-move.
Alice has no winning strategy.
22) There are two questions like below. He changed a little in values and statement.
23) A sheet of paper has statements numbered from 1 to 40. For all values of n from 1 to 40, statement
and says: ‘Exactly and of the statements on this sheet are false’. Which statements are true and which are false?
a) The even numbered statements are true and the odd numbered statements are false.
b) The 39th statement is true and the rest are false.
c) The odd numbered statements are true and the even numbered statements are false.
d) All the statements are false.
24) After the typist writes 12 letters and addresses 12 envelopes, she inserts the letters randomly into the envelopes (1 letter per envelope). What is the probability that exactly 1 letter is inserted in an improper envelope?
a) 0 b) 12/212 c) 11/12 d) 1/12
25) There are three questions on this model just changed statements.
26) One day Rapunzel meets Dwarf and Byte in the Forest of forgetfulness. She knows that Dwarf lies on Mondays, Tuesdays and Wednesdays, and tells the truth on the other days of the week. Byte, on the other hand, lies on Thursdays, Fridays and Saturdays, but tells the truth on the other days of the week. Now they make the following statements to Rapunzel – Dwarf: Yesterday was one of those days when I lie. Byte: Yesterday was one of those days when I lie too. What day is it?
a) Thursday b) Tuesday c) Sunday d) Monday
27) India with a burgeoning population and a plethora of vehicles (at last count there were more than 20 million of them) has witnessed big traffic jams at all major cities. Children often hone their counting skills by adding the wheels of vehicles in schoolyards or bus depots and guessing the number of vehicles. Alok, one such child, finds only bicycles and 4 wheeled wagons in his schoolyard. He counts the total number of wheels to be 46. What could be the possible number of bicycles?
a) 25 b) 5 c)4
These are some questions. All are very easy but you may not get these repeated questions in paper but it’s very easy.
Technical Round:
It’s very cool round. He just stressed on DBMS and I answered 75% of all questions.
- -> Joining tables
- -> Simple queries
- -> Primary key
- ->Foreghn key.
- -> Nested querys
- ->plsql data types.
HR Round:
He asked just simple questions about my family?
prepare following.
- -> Tell me about your self
- -> About profile of TCS
- -> Why should i hire you
- -> Strengths and weakness
- -> Hobbies, it’s very important
- -> And be confident while answering
- -> Don’t lie
Written Test :
It consist of 35 questions all are quantitative. Time is 80 mins. Its special offer for our Siddhartha but in general time will be only 60 mins cut off was not declared.
1) A father has 7 penny’s with him and 1 water melon is for 1p, 2chickoos for 1p, 3 grapes foe 1p. He has three sons. How can he share the fruits equally?
Ans: 1 watermelon, 2 chickoos, 1 grape
2) Both questions are just 1st question but changed values.
3) There are two pipes A and B. If A filled 10 liters in hour B can fills 20 liters in same time. Likewise B can fill 10, 20, 40, 80,160. If B filled in (1/16) th of a tank in 3 hours, how much time will it take to fill completely?
Ans: 7 hours
4) In a market 4 man are standing. The average age of the four before 4 years is 45, aftyer some days one man is added and his age is 49. What is the average weight of all?
I am not sure but question is like this, very easy
5) A question on average speed
Hint: Formula{(2*v1*v2)/(v1+v2)}
6) A question on ratio of ages between ages. Just like ages of two persons is 6:5 sum of their ages is 44 ofter how many years the ratio would be 8:7?
Ans: 8 (may be some different value)
7) A large story bla bla bla at last speed of train given and time was given caliculate distance.
Hint: S=T*V
In some times you have to convert time from km/hr to m/sec or vise versa.
Formula: kmph–to–m/sec– multiply with (5/18)
m/sec –to–kmph– multiply with (18/5);
8) A question on cubes: A hollow cube of size 5 cm is taken, with a thickness of 1 cm. It is made of smaller cubes of size 1 cm. If 4 faces of the outer surface of the cube are painted, totally how many faces of the
smaller cubes remain unpainted?
a)800 b)488 c)900
9) A hare and a tortoise have a race along a circle of 100 yards diameter. The tortoise goes in one direction and the hare in the other. The hare starts after the tortoise has covered 1/5 of its distance and that too leisurely. The hare and tortoise meet when the hare has covered only 1/8 of the distance. By what factor should the hare increase its speed so as to tie the race?
a) 5 b) 37.80 c) 8
10) The IT giant Tirnop has recently crossed a head count of 150000 and earnings of $7 billion. As one of the forerunners in the technology front, Tirnop continues to lead the way in products and services in India. At Tirnop, all programmers are equal in every respect. They receive identical salaries ans also write code at the same rate.Suppose 12 such programmers take 12 minutes to write 12 lines of code in total. How many lines of code can be written by 72 programmers in 72 minutes?
a) 12 b) 72 c) 6
11) I am surprised that there are three qustions again repeated by just changing numbers(very easy )
12) This question is simple very simple this much long question is common in written exam neglect unnecessary data.
You have to learn how to catch necessary data from whole stuff.
13) Ferrari S.p.A. is an Italian sports car manufacturer based in Maranello, Italy. Founded by Enzo Ferrari in 1928 as Scuderia Ferrari, the company sponsored drivers and manufactured race cars before moving into production of street-legal vehicles in 1947 as Ferrari S.p.A. Throughout its history, the company has been noted for its continued participation in racing, especially in Formula One, where it has enjoyed great success. Rohit once bought a Ferrari. It could go 2 times as fast as Mohit’s old Mercedes. If the speed of Mohit’s Mercedes is 32 km/hr and the distance travelled by the Ferrari is 952 km, find the total time taken for Rohit to drive that distance.
a) 14.88 b) 476 c) 15.88
14) The teacher is testing a student’s proficiency in arithmetic and poses the following question. 1/3 of a number is 3 more than 1/6 of the same number. What is the number? Can you help the student find the answer?
a) 18 b) 21 c) 6
15) There are two water tanks A and B, A is much smaller than B. While water fills at the rate of one litre
every hour in A, it gets filled up like 10, 20, 40, 80, 160 in tank B. (At the end of first hour, B has 10 litres, second hour it has 20, and so on). If 1/32 of B’s volume is filled after 3 hours, what is the total duration required to fill it completely?
a) 7 hours b) 9 hours c) 10
16) Again this below question is repeated thrise by changing values.
Alok and Bhanu play the following min-max game. Given the expression where X, Y and Z are variables representing single digits (0 to 9), Alok would like to maximize N while Bhanu would like to minimize it. Towards this end, Alok chooses a single digit number and Bhanu substitutes this for a variable of her choice (X, Y or Z). Alok then chooses the next value and Bhanu, the variable to substitute the value. Finally Alok proposes the value for the remaining variable. Assuming both play to their optimal strategies, the value of N at the end of the game would be
a) 9 b)-18 c) 4
17) See this question how easy; but he twisted it in very nice way.
A circular dartboard of radius 1 foot is at a distance of 20 feet from you. You throw a dart at it and it
hits the dartboard at some point Q in the circle. What is the probability that Q is closer to the center
of the circle than the periphery?
a) 0.75 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) 0.25
18) On planet zorba, a solar blast has melted the ice caps on its equator. 8 years after the ice melts, tiny plantoids called echina start growing on the rocks. Echina grows in the form of a circle and the relationship between the diameter of this circle and the age of echina is given by the formula
d = 4 * √ (t-8) for t ≥ 8
Where the represents the diameter in mm and t the number of years since the solar blast. Jagan recorded the radius of some echina at a particular spot as 8mm. How many years back did the solar blast occur?
a) 24 b) 12 c) 8 d) 16
19) This is very simple but a little bit twisted.
For the FIFA world cup, Paul the octopus has been predicting the winner of each match with amazing success. It is rumored that in a match between 2 teams A and B, Paul picks A with the same probability as A’s chances of winning.
Let’s assume such rumors to be true and that in a match between Ghana and Bolivia, Ghana the stronger team has a probability of 2/3 of winning the game. What is the probability that Paul will correctly pick the winner of the Ghana-Bolivia game?
a) 4/9 b) 2/3 c) 1/9 d) 5/9
20) People {a1, a2, …, a36} meet and shake hands in a circular fashion. In other words, there are totally 36 handshakes involving the pairs, {a1, a2}, {a2, a3}, …, {a35, a36}, {a36, a1}. Then size of the smallest set of people such that the rest have shaken hands with at least one person in the set is
a) 12 b) 13 c) 18 d) 11
21) Alice and Bob play the following coins-on-a-stack game. 20 coins are stacked one above the other. One of them is a special (gold) coin and the rest are ordinary coins. The goal is to bring the gold coin to the top by repeatedly moving the topmost coin to another position in the stack. Alice starts and the players take turns. A turn consists of moving the coin on the top to a position i below the top coin (0 ≤ i ≤ 20). We will call this an i-move (thus a 0-move implies doing nothing). The proviso is that an i-move cannot be repeated; for example once a player makes a 2-move, on subsequent turns neither player can make a 2-move. If the gold coin happens to be on top when it’s a player’s turn then the player wins the game.
Initially, the gold coinis the third coin from the top. Then
In order to win, Alice’s first move should be a 0-move.
In order to win, Alice’s first move should be a 1-move.
Alice has no winning strategy.
22) There are two questions like below. He changed a little in values and statement.
23) A sheet of paper has statements numbered from 1 to 40. For all values of n from 1 to 40, statement
and says: ‘Exactly and of the statements on this sheet are false’. Which statements are true and which are false?
a) The even numbered statements are true and the odd numbered statements are false.
b) The 39th statement is true and the rest are false.
c) The odd numbered statements are true and the even numbered statements are false.
d) All the statements are false.
24) After the typist writes 12 letters and addresses 12 envelopes, she inserts the letters randomly into the envelopes (1 letter per envelope). What is the probability that exactly 1 letter is inserted in an improper envelope?
a) 0 b) 12/212 c) 11/12 d) 1/12
25) There are three questions on this model just changed statements.
26) One day Rapunzel meets Dwarf and Byte in the Forest of forgetfulness. She knows that Dwarf lies on Mondays, Tuesdays and Wednesdays, and tells the truth on the other days of the week. Byte, on the other hand, lies on Thursdays, Fridays and Saturdays, but tells the truth on the other days of the week. Now they make the following statements to Rapunzel – Dwarf: Yesterday was one of those days when I lie. Byte: Yesterday was one of those days when I lie too. What day is it?
a) Thursday b) Tuesday c) Sunday d) Monday
27) India with a burgeoning population and a plethora of vehicles (at last count there were more than 20 million of them) has witnessed big traffic jams at all major cities. Children often hone their counting skills by adding the wheels of vehicles in schoolyards or bus depots and guessing the number of vehicles. Alok, one such child, finds only bicycles and 4 wheeled wagons in his schoolyard. He counts the total number of wheels to be 46. What could be the possible number of bicycles?
a) 25 b) 5 c)4
These are some questions. All are very easy but you may not get these repeated questions in paper but it’s very easy.
Technical Round:
It’s very cool round. He just stressed on DBMS and I answered 75% of all questions.
- -> Joining tables
- -> Simple queries
- -> Primary key
- ->Foreghn key.
- -> Nested querys
- ->plsql data types.
HR Round:
He asked just simple questions about my family?
prepare following.
- -> Tell me about your self
- -> About profile of TCS
- -> Why should i hire you
- -> Strengths and weakness
- -> Hobbies, it’s very important
- -> And be confident while answering
- -> Don’t lie
HAL Written Test paper Interview
HAL Written Test paper Interview
Pattern is General Knowledge :
30 Questions
Electronics :
70 Questions
I. General Knowledge :
1. Governor of uttar Pradesh
2. Lucknow is popular for which fruit:
a) Mango b) Orange c) Water fruit
3. The chemical Formula of salt
4. President of India
5. In which district of UP a oil refinery is found
6. Pigeon is the indication of
7. Republic day in India is celebrated on
8. The “Beating the retreat” hasn’t celebrated on republic day, what is its resion…
9. Lucknow city is located near which river
10. Renukot is popular for
11. Firozabad is popular for
12. The first prime minister of India
13. The first President of India
14. The birth day of Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru is celebrated as:-
15. The writer of ‘Godan’
16. Word ‘Agfa’ is related to
II. Electronics Questions :
1. When the temperature of the room increased then the energy of semiconductor…
2. Power diode is generally made from: – Silicon/Germanium/Both/None of these
3. Thermionic Emission of electron is due to………….
4. When the both junction of NPN diode is reverse biased, then the diode is in which mode:
a) Active b) Cutoff c) Saturation d) inverted
5. Which transistor mode gives the inverted output:
a) Common Emitter b) Common Base c) Common Collector d) None of these
6. Which coupling gives the higher gain in case of amplifier:
a) Capacitor coupling b) Impedance coupling c) Transformer coupling
7. Which distortion is least objectionable in audio amplification:
a) Phase b) Frequency c) Harmonic d) Intermediation
8. A narrowband amplifier has a band pass nearly…………of central frequency:
a) 33.3% b) 10% c) 50%
9. Frequency of wein bridge oscillator
10. Phase shift oscillator consists:
a) RL b) RC c) RLC
11. Crystal oscillator frequency is very stable due to:
12. Multivibrater Produces:
a) Sine wave b) Square wave c) Smooth wave d) sawtooth
13. Convert the 101101 Binary number into octal no:
a) 65 b) 55 c) 51 d) 45
14. 10 in BCD:
a) 10100 b) 1100 c) 010111 d) None of these
15. Which PNP device has a terminal for synchronizing purpose:
a) SCS b) Triac c) Diac d) SUS
16. In 3-Phase full converter, the output during overlap is equal to……………..
17. Addition of indium in semiconductor crystal makes:
a) PNP b) NPN
18. Free electron exists in which band:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) Conduction band
19. Ripple factor of half wave rectifier:
a) 1.21 b) 0.48 c) 0.5
20. Efficiency of half wave rectifier:
21. Transistor that can be used in enhancement mode:
a) NPN b) UJT c) JFET d) MOSFET
21. Following contributes to harmonic distortion in Amplifier:
a) +Ve feedback b) –Ve feedback c) Defective active device
22. High cutoff frequency:
a) CB b) CC c) CE
23. Which is used as data selector?
a) Encoder b) Decoder c) modulator d) Demodulator
24. Read write capable memory:
a) RAM b) ROM c) Both d) None of these
25. When modulation frequency is doubled, modulation index also doubled in case of:
a) FM b) PM c) AM d) PM & FM
26. Term ’Noise temperature’ is used for
27. Video detector used in TV receiver is a….
a) Diode detector b) Ratio detector c) Phase detector
28. Which isn’t directly operated from mains:
a) Half wave rectifier b) Centre tap rectifier c) Bridge rectifier d) Voltage doubler
29. In 3-Phase half wave rectifier each diode conducts for duration of:
a) 30 Degree b) 45 Degree c) 60 Degree d) 180 Degree
30. Transistor is a following operated device:
a) Low voltage & low current device
b) Low voltage & high current device
c) Low current & high voltage device
d) High current & high voltage device
31. If number of phase in a multiphase rectifier increased then:
a) Output increased b) Output decreased c) Output smooth d) No change
32. Which output requires minimum filtration:
a) Half wave rectifier b) full wave c) SCR half wave rectifier d) Voltage doubler
33. Identify the under circuit
a) Low pass filter b) High pass filter c) Band pass filter
Pattern is General Knowledge :
30 Questions
Electronics :
70 Questions
I. General Knowledge :
1. Governor of uttar Pradesh
2. Lucknow is popular for which fruit:
a) Mango b) Orange c) Water fruit
3. The chemical Formula of salt
4. President of India
5. In which district of UP a oil refinery is found
6. Pigeon is the indication of
7. Republic day in India is celebrated on
8. The “Beating the retreat” hasn’t celebrated on republic day, what is its resion…
9. Lucknow city is located near which river
10. Renukot is popular for
11. Firozabad is popular for
12. The first prime minister of India
13. The first President of India
14. The birth day of Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru is celebrated as:-
15. The writer of ‘Godan’
16. Word ‘Agfa’ is related to
II. Electronics Questions :
1. When the temperature of the room increased then the energy of semiconductor…
2. Power diode is generally made from: – Silicon/Germanium/Both/None of these
3. Thermionic Emission of electron is due to………….
4. When the both junction of NPN diode is reverse biased, then the diode is in which mode:
a) Active b) Cutoff c) Saturation d) inverted
5. Which transistor mode gives the inverted output:
a) Common Emitter b) Common Base c) Common Collector d) None of these
6. Which coupling gives the higher gain in case of amplifier:
a) Capacitor coupling b) Impedance coupling c) Transformer coupling
7. Which distortion is least objectionable in audio amplification:
a) Phase b) Frequency c) Harmonic d) Intermediation
8. A narrowband amplifier has a band pass nearly…………of central frequency:
a) 33.3% b) 10% c) 50%
9. Frequency of wein bridge oscillator
10. Phase shift oscillator consists:
a) RL b) RC c) RLC
11. Crystal oscillator frequency is very stable due to:
12. Multivibrater Produces:
a) Sine wave b) Square wave c) Smooth wave d) sawtooth
13. Convert the 101101 Binary number into octal no:
a) 65 b) 55 c) 51 d) 45
14. 10 in BCD:
a) 10100 b) 1100 c) 010111 d) None of these
15. Which PNP device has a terminal for synchronizing purpose:
a) SCS b) Triac c) Diac d) SUS
16. In 3-Phase full converter, the output during overlap is equal to……………..
17. Addition of indium in semiconductor crystal makes:
a) PNP b) NPN
18. Free electron exists in which band:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) Conduction band
19. Ripple factor of half wave rectifier:
a) 1.21 b) 0.48 c) 0.5
20. Efficiency of half wave rectifier:
21. Transistor that can be used in enhancement mode:
a) NPN b) UJT c) JFET d) MOSFET
21. Following contributes to harmonic distortion in Amplifier:
a) +Ve feedback b) –Ve feedback c) Defective active device
22. High cutoff frequency:
a) CB b) CC c) CE
23. Which is used as data selector?
a) Encoder b) Decoder c) modulator d) Demodulator
24. Read write capable memory:
a) RAM b) ROM c) Both d) None of these
25. When modulation frequency is doubled, modulation index also doubled in case of:
a) FM b) PM c) AM d) PM & FM
26. Term ’Noise temperature’ is used for
27. Video detector used in TV receiver is a….
a) Diode detector b) Ratio detector c) Phase detector
28. Which isn’t directly operated from mains:
a) Half wave rectifier b) Centre tap rectifier c) Bridge rectifier d) Voltage doubler
29. In 3-Phase half wave rectifier each diode conducts for duration of:
a) 30 Degree b) 45 Degree c) 60 Degree d) 180 Degree
30. Transistor is a following operated device:
a) Low voltage & low current device
b) Low voltage & high current device
c) Low current & high voltage device
d) High current & high voltage device
31. If number of phase in a multiphase rectifier increased then:
a) Output increased b) Output decreased c) Output smooth d) No change
32. Which output requires minimum filtration:
a) Half wave rectifier b) full wave c) SCR half wave rectifier d) Voltage doubler
33. Identify the under circuit
a) Low pass filter b) High pass filter c) Band pass filter
Essar Written and Interview Questions
Essar Written and Interview Questions
1) Composition of gunmetal?.
2) What is the fuel used in airplanes?.
3) Specific heat capacity of air?.
4) Melting point of Aluminum?.
5) If a ball is kept at aheight of x(m),from that position it is dropeed .Does the p.e is equal to the K.e if the ball goes inside the earth as same distance where it is relieved?.
6) Viscosity of the lubricant ———- with increase in temperature?.
7) What amount of power required to make the 2-strke petrol engine to 4-stroke diesel engine?
8)Which engine is the most efficient in terms of compression ratio?
9) for the same compression ratio heat removed in each cycle is efficient in otto or diesel cycle?.
10) Use of draft tube in turbine ?.a) to increase work o/p of runner b) To increase turbine output.
11) Percentage of carbon in toolsteel?.
12) Introduction of sulphur in mild steel increases or decreases the machinability?.
13) Is bernoullis theorem is applicable for steady or unsteady flow?.
14) Axial turbine is of which type?.a) high head b) low head.
15) corrosion is inhibited due to oxidation or reduction?.
16) Binary power cycle uses ———as working fluid?.
17) the purpose of runner in casting ———-
18) Shape of a u.d.l.of cantilever beam is?.
19) which has high coefficient of friction ?.disc or band brakes
20) Engine valve seat is cooled at —– temperature in liquid nitrogen
Ans : (-180C)
21)Bucling is high in bar which is greater or smaller in length?.
22) Formula for deflection of beam?
Ans: PL/AE
23) Which law says that pressure can be transferred from onr point to another in an undiminished form?.
24) Is Vane pump is Positive or non-positive displacement pump?.
25) As the altitude why density of the decreases?.
26) In the reversible adiabatic process entrophy is constant or not?
27) In which process the temperature of the system changes but there is no heat transfer to the surroundings?
1) Composition of gunmetal?.
2) What is the fuel used in airplanes?.
3) Specific heat capacity of air?.
4) Melting point of Aluminum?.
5) If a ball is kept at aheight of x(m),from that position it is dropeed .Does the p.e is equal to the K.e if the ball goes inside the earth as same distance where it is relieved?.
6) Viscosity of the lubricant ———- with increase in temperature?.
7) What amount of power required to make the 2-strke petrol engine to 4-stroke diesel engine?
8)Which engine is the most efficient in terms of compression ratio?
9) for the same compression ratio heat removed in each cycle is efficient in otto or diesel cycle?.
10) Use of draft tube in turbine ?.a) to increase work o/p of runner b) To increase turbine output.
11) Percentage of carbon in toolsteel?.
12) Introduction of sulphur in mild steel increases or decreases the machinability?.
13) Is bernoullis theorem is applicable for steady or unsteady flow?.
14) Axial turbine is of which type?.a) high head b) low head.
15) corrosion is inhibited due to oxidation or reduction?.
16) Binary power cycle uses ———as working fluid?.
17) the purpose of runner in casting ———-
18) Shape of a u.d.l.of cantilever beam is?.
19) which has high coefficient of friction ?.disc or band brakes
20) Engine valve seat is cooled at —– temperature in liquid nitrogen
Ans : (-180C)
21)Bucling is high in bar which is greater or smaller in length?.
22) Formula for deflection of beam?
Ans: PL/AE
23) Which law says that pressure can be transferred from onr point to another in an undiminished form?.
24) Is Vane pump is Positive or non-positive displacement pump?.
25) As the altitude why density of the decreases?.
26) In the reversible adiabatic process entrophy is constant or not?
27) In which process the temperature of the system changes but there is no heat transfer to the surroundings?
Healthcare Domain Knowledge for Interviews Part 3
Healthcare Domain Knowledge for Interviews Part 3
continued from part 2
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)
* Protects health insurance coverage for workers and their families when they change or lose their jobs.
* Administrative Simplification provision is composed of four parts, each of which have generated a variety of "rules" promulgated by the Department of Health and Human Services.
The four parts of Administrative Simplification are:
* Standards for Electronic Transactions
* Unique Identifiers Standards
* Security Rule
* Privacy Rule
Standards for Electronic Transactions :
* Electronic Health Transactions includes health claims, health plan eligibility, enrollment and disenrollment, payments for care and health plan premiums, claim status, first injury reports, coordination of benefits, and related transactions.
* In the past, health providers and plans have used many different electronic formats to transact medical claims and related business. Implementing a national standard is intended to result in the use of one format, thereby "simplifying" and improving transactions efficiency nationwide.
* Virtually all health plans must adopt these standards. Providers using non-electronic transactions are not required to adopt the standards for use with commercial healthcare payers. However, electronic transactions are required by Medicare, and all Medicare providers must adopt the standards for these transactions. If they don't, they will have to contract with a clearinghouse to provide translation services.
Unique Identifiers Standards:
In the past, healthcare organizations have used multiple identification formats when conducting business with each other – a confusing, error-prone and costly approach. It is expected that standard identifiers will reduce these problems. The Employer Identifier Standard, published in 2002, adopts an employer's tax ID number or employer identification number (EIN) as the standard for electronic transactions. Final standards for Provider and Health Plan identifiers have not yet been published.
Privacy Rule:
* Give patients new rights to access their medical records, restrict access by others, request changes, and to learn how they have been accessed
* Restrict most disclosures of protected health information to the minimum needed for healthcare treatment and business operations
* Provide that all patients are formally notified of covered entities' privacy practices,
* Enable patients to decide if they will authorize disclosure of their protected health information (PHI) for uses other than treatment or healthcare business operations
* Establish new criminal and civil sanctions for improper use or disclosure of PHI
* Establish new requirements for access to records by researchers and others
* Establish business associate agreements with business partners that safeguard their use and disclosure of PHI.
HIPAA Transactions
270 Eligibility enquiry
271 Eligibility enquiry response
276 Claim status enquiry
277 Claim status enquiry response
837 Inbound claims
835 Remittance advise
HIPAA 270/271:
* General Requests
* eligibility status (i.e., active or not active in the plan)
* maximum benefits (policy limits)
* exclusions
* in-plan/out-of-plan benefits
* C.O.B information
* deductible
* co-pays
Specific Requests
* procedure coverage dates
* procedure coverage maximum amount(s) allowed
* deductible amount(s)
* remaining deductible amount(s)
* co-insurance amount(s)
* co-pay amount(s)
* coverage limitation percentage
* patient responsibility amount(s)
* non-covered amount(s)
HIPAA 270/271 Flow:
The Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS®)
continued from part 2
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)
* Protects health insurance coverage for workers and their families when they change or lose their jobs.
* Administrative Simplification provision is composed of four parts, each of which have generated a variety of "rules" promulgated by the Department of Health and Human Services.
The four parts of Administrative Simplification are:
* Standards for Electronic Transactions
* Unique Identifiers Standards
* Security Rule
* Privacy Rule
Standards for Electronic Transactions :
* Electronic Health Transactions includes health claims, health plan eligibility, enrollment and disenrollment, payments for care and health plan premiums, claim status, first injury reports, coordination of benefits, and related transactions.
* In the past, health providers and plans have used many different electronic formats to transact medical claims and related business. Implementing a national standard is intended to result in the use of one format, thereby "simplifying" and improving transactions efficiency nationwide.
* Virtually all health plans must adopt these standards. Providers using non-electronic transactions are not required to adopt the standards for use with commercial healthcare payers. However, electronic transactions are required by Medicare, and all Medicare providers must adopt the standards for these transactions. If they don't, they will have to contract with a clearinghouse to provide translation services.
Unique Identifiers Standards:
In the past, healthcare organizations have used multiple identification formats when conducting business with each other – a confusing, error-prone and costly approach. It is expected that standard identifiers will reduce these problems. The Employer Identifier Standard, published in 2002, adopts an employer's tax ID number or employer identification number (EIN) as the standard for electronic transactions. Final standards for Provider and Health Plan identifiers have not yet been published.
Privacy Rule:
* Give patients new rights to access their medical records, restrict access by others, request changes, and to learn how they have been accessed
* Restrict most disclosures of protected health information to the minimum needed for healthcare treatment and business operations
* Provide that all patients are formally notified of covered entities' privacy practices,
* Enable patients to decide if they will authorize disclosure of their protected health information (PHI) for uses other than treatment or healthcare business operations
* Establish new criminal and civil sanctions for improper use or disclosure of PHI
* Establish new requirements for access to records by researchers and others
* Establish business associate agreements with business partners that safeguard their use and disclosure of PHI.
HIPAA Transactions
270 Eligibility enquiry
271 Eligibility enquiry response
276 Claim status enquiry
277 Claim status enquiry response
837 Inbound claims
835 Remittance advise
HIPAA 270/271:
* General Requests
* eligibility status (i.e., active or not active in the plan)
* maximum benefits (policy limits)
* exclusions
* in-plan/out-of-plan benefits
* C.O.B information
* deductible
* co-pays
Specific Requests
* procedure coverage dates
* procedure coverage maximum amount(s) allowed
* deductible amount(s)
* remaining deductible amount(s)
* co-insurance amount(s)
* co-pay amount(s)
* coverage limitation percentage
* patient responsibility amount(s)
* non-covered amount(s)
HIPAA 270/271 Flow:
A set of standardized performance measures designed to ensure that purchasers and consumers have the information they need to reliably compare the performance of managed health care plans.
The performance measures in HEDIS are related to many significant public health issues such as cancer, heart disease, smoking, asthma and diabetes.
HEDIS also includes a standardized survey of consumers' experiences that evaluates plan performance in areas such as customer service, access to care and claims possessing.
HEDIS is sponsored, supported and maintained by NCQA.
The performance measures in HEDIS are related to many significant public health issues such as cancer, heart disease, smoking, asthma and diabetes.
HEDIS also includes a standardized survey of consumers' experiences that evaluates plan performance in areas such as customer service, access to care and claims possessing.
HEDIS is sponsored, supported and maintained by NCQA.
Healthcare Domain Knowledge for Interviews Part 2
Healthcare Domain Knowledge for Interviews Part 2
continue from Part 1
POS:
* Point-of-service plans are health benefit arrangements that evolved in response to consumer desire for broader choice in physicians and health care facilities. Health maintenance organizations offer POS plans to give their members a choice of either in-network benefits or out-of-network benefits.
* "In-network" refers to health care professionals and facilities that are members of the health plan's provider network. They are usually listed as "participating providers" in membership materials. Except in special cases, such as emergency treatment, HMOs usually cover care delivered by in-network providers only.
* "Out of network" refers to health care professionals who have no contractual relationship with the health plan. Out-of-pocket costs vary according to how a member chooses to receive care at the "point of service" (hence the name).
Defined Contribution Plan
* Involve employer funding of a fixed (as opposed to variable) dollar amount for health benefits, which employees may then use to purchase benefits from an employer arranged funding mechanism.
* The benefits could either be group benefits packaged and arranged by the employer, or purchased individually by the employees.
Carrier vs. Payer
Carrier
An insurer; an underwriter of risk that finances health care. Also refers to any organization, which underwrites or administers life, health or other insurance programs. When an employer has a “self-insured” plan, the carrier (such as Aetna or Blue Cross) may not serve as carrier in this case, but may serve only as “third party administrator.
Payer :
The public or private organization that is responsible for payment for health care expenses. Payers may be insurance companies or self-insured employers.
Medicare
* A federal program that pays for certain health care expenses for people aged 65 or older. Enrolled individuals must pay deductibles and co-payments, but much of their medical costs are covered by the program.
* Medicare is less comprehensive than some other health care programs, but it is an important source of post- retirement health care.
* Medicare is divided into three parts.
* Part A covers hospital bills,
* Part B covers doctor bills, and
* Part C provides the option to choose from a package of health care plans.
Medicaid
* State programs of public assistance to persons regardless of age whose income and resources are insufficient to pay for health care.
* The United States federal government provides matching funds to the state Medicaid programs.
Coordination of Benefits (COB)
* Provision regulating payments to eliminate duplicate coverage when a claimant is covered by multiple group plans. The procedures set forth in a Subscription Agreement to determine which coverage is primary for payment of benefits to Members with duplicate coverage.
* A coordination of benefits, or "nonduplication," clause in either policy prevents double payment by making one insurer the primary payer, and assuring that not more than 100 percent of the cost is covered. Standard rules determine which of two or more plans, each having COB provisions, pays its benefits in full and which becomes the supplementary payer on a claim.
* Also called cross-over
continued in Part3 click here
continue from Part 1
POS:
* Point-of-service plans are health benefit arrangements that evolved in response to consumer desire for broader choice in physicians and health care facilities. Health maintenance organizations offer POS plans to give their members a choice of either in-network benefits or out-of-network benefits.
* "In-network" refers to health care professionals and facilities that are members of the health plan's provider network. They are usually listed as "participating providers" in membership materials. Except in special cases, such as emergency treatment, HMOs usually cover care delivered by in-network providers only.
* "Out of network" refers to health care professionals who have no contractual relationship with the health plan. Out-of-pocket costs vary according to how a member chooses to receive care at the "point of service" (hence the name).
Defined Contribution Plan
* Involve employer funding of a fixed (as opposed to variable) dollar amount for health benefits, which employees may then use to purchase benefits from an employer arranged funding mechanism.
* The benefits could either be group benefits packaged and arranged by the employer, or purchased individually by the employees.
Carrier vs. Payer
Carrier
An insurer; an underwriter of risk that finances health care. Also refers to any organization, which underwrites or administers life, health or other insurance programs. When an employer has a “self-insured” plan, the carrier (such as Aetna or Blue Cross) may not serve as carrier in this case, but may serve only as “third party administrator.
Payer :
The public or private organization that is responsible for payment for health care expenses. Payers may be insurance companies or self-insured employers.
Medicare
* A federal program that pays for certain health care expenses for people aged 65 or older. Enrolled individuals must pay deductibles and co-payments, but much of their medical costs are covered by the program.
* Medicare is less comprehensive than some other health care programs, but it is an important source of post- retirement health care.
* Medicare is divided into three parts.
* Part A covers hospital bills,
* Part B covers doctor bills, and
* Part C provides the option to choose from a package of health care plans.
Medicaid
* State programs of public assistance to persons regardless of age whose income and resources are insufficient to pay for health care.
* The United States federal government provides matching funds to the state Medicaid programs.
Coordination of Benefits (COB)
* Provision regulating payments to eliminate duplicate coverage when a claimant is covered by multiple group plans. The procedures set forth in a Subscription Agreement to determine which coverage is primary for payment of benefits to Members with duplicate coverage.
* A coordination of benefits, or "nonduplication," clause in either policy prevents double payment by making one insurer the primary payer, and assuring that not more than 100 percent of the cost is covered. Standard rules determine which of two or more plans, each having COB provisions, pays its benefits in full and which becomes the supplementary payer on a claim.
* Also called cross-over
continued in Part3 click here
Healthcare Domain Knowledge for Interviews Testing Mainly
Healthcare Domain Knowledge for Interviews Testing Mainly
This article discuss common healthcare terms from a payer perspective and gives a overview basic HIPAA messages.
Common healthcare terms:
* Payer
* Plan
* Provider
* Member
* Subscriber
* Claim
* Product
* COB (Coordination of benefits)
* PCP (Primary Care Provider)
* Capitation
* HIPAA
Healthcare payer services:
* Revenue Management
* Customer Service
* Product Management
* Consumer Management
* Risk Management
* Care Management
* Provider Management
* Member Management
* Reimbursement Management
Standard Code Sets:
ICD-9-CM Diagnosis & Inpatient Procedures
CPT-4 Outpatient Procedures
HCPCS Ancillary Services & Procedures
CDT-2 Dental Terminology
NDC National Drug Codes
DRG Diagnostic Related Groupings
ICD-9-CM:
International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-9-CM, ICD-10-CM) - This is the universal coding method used to document the incidence of disease, injury, mortality and illness.
A diagnosis and procedure classification system designed to facilitate collection of uniform and comparable health information.
The ICD-9-CM was issued in 1979. This system is used to group patients into DRGs, prepare hospital and physician billings and prepare cost reports.
Classification of disease by diagnosis codified into six-digit numbers.
Diagnosis Related Groups (DRGs):
An inpatient or hospital classification system used to pay a hospital or other provider for their services and to categorize illness by diagnosis and treatment.
A classification scheme used by Medicare that clusters patients into 468 categories on the basis of patients' illnesses, diseases and medical problems. Groupings of diagnostic categories drawn from the International Classification of Diseases and modified by the presence of a surgical procedure, patient age, presence or absence of significant complications/other relevant criteria.
System involving classification of medical cases and payment to hospitals on the basis of diagnosis.
Common Health Plan Types:
HMO
PPO
POS
Medicaid
Medicare
Defined Contribution
HMO:
A health maintenance organization (HMO) is a health care delivery system that accepts responsibility and financial risk for providing a specified set of health care services to an enrolled membership in exchange for a fixed, prepaid fee from the purchaser (i.e., either the employer, government or an individual.) HMOs build network through contracts with selected physicians or physician groups, hospitals, and other providers who render care for a given population for a discounted fee in anticipation of an increased volume of patients. Those individuals who become members of an HMO (i.e., enrollees) agree to receive care from this contracted network of providers.
Characterized by a PCP, all treatment/referrals thru PCP
PPO:
A Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) is a group of health care professionals and/or hospitals that contract with an employer or insurance company to provide medical care to a specified group of patients. Participating health care providers exchange discounted services for an increased volume of patients from this group. Insurance companies offer PPOs to give their members a choice of either in-network benefits or out-of-network benefits.
Continued in Part2 click here
This article discuss common healthcare terms from a payer perspective and gives a overview basic HIPAA messages.
Common healthcare terms:
* Payer
* Plan
* Provider
* Member
* Subscriber
* Claim
* Product
* COB (Coordination of benefits)
* PCP (Primary Care Provider)
* Capitation
* HIPAA
Healthcare payer services:
* Revenue Management
* Customer Service
* Product Management
* Consumer Management
* Risk Management
* Care Management
* Provider Management
* Member Management
* Reimbursement Management
Standard Code Sets:
ICD-9-CM Diagnosis & Inpatient Procedures
CPT-4 Outpatient Procedures
HCPCS Ancillary Services & Procedures
CDT-2 Dental Terminology
NDC National Drug Codes
DRG Diagnostic Related Groupings
ICD-9-CM:
International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-9-CM, ICD-10-CM) - This is the universal coding method used to document the incidence of disease, injury, mortality and illness.
A diagnosis and procedure classification system designed to facilitate collection of uniform and comparable health information.
The ICD-9-CM was issued in 1979. This system is used to group patients into DRGs, prepare hospital and physician billings and prepare cost reports.
Classification of disease by diagnosis codified into six-digit numbers.
Diagnosis Related Groups (DRGs):
An inpatient or hospital classification system used to pay a hospital or other provider for their services and to categorize illness by diagnosis and treatment.
A classification scheme used by Medicare that clusters patients into 468 categories on the basis of patients' illnesses, diseases and medical problems. Groupings of diagnostic categories drawn from the International Classification of Diseases and modified by the presence of a surgical procedure, patient age, presence or absence of significant complications/other relevant criteria.
System involving classification of medical cases and payment to hospitals on the basis of diagnosis.
Common Health Plan Types:
HMO
PPO
POS
Medicaid
Medicare
Defined Contribution
HMO:
A health maintenance organization (HMO) is a health care delivery system that accepts responsibility and financial risk for providing a specified set of health care services to an enrolled membership in exchange for a fixed, prepaid fee from the purchaser (i.e., either the employer, government or an individual.) HMOs build network through contracts with selected physicians or physician groups, hospitals, and other providers who render care for a given population for a discounted fee in anticipation of an increased volume of patients. Those individuals who become members of an HMO (i.e., enrollees) agree to receive care from this contracted network of providers.
Characterized by a PCP, all treatment/referrals thru PCP
PPO:
A Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) is a group of health care professionals and/or hospitals that contract with an employer or insurance company to provide medical care to a specified group of patients. Participating health care providers exchange discounted services for an increased volume of patients from this group. Insurance companies offer PPOs to give their members a choice of either in-network benefits or out-of-network benefits.
Continued in Part2 click here
Checklist for WebApplication Testing
Checklist for WebApplication Testing
1.Page links to check:Make sure links to each page of the web site is working and link among the pages are working fine.
2.The relevance of inspection:Add and delete items from a dynamic web site and make sure this does not impact the other items present in the web page.
3.To check the function of the button is correct:If the update, cancel, delete, save and other functions are correct or not.
4.String length check:Put excess of characters a input box should support and make sure it is not taking that. Also make sure if the requirement is 256 characters then it is alteast taking 256 characters.
5.Character type checking:If special character is not allowed then give some special character, negative values and make sure proper error message has been thrown by the system.
6.Punctuation check:Make sure punctuation, space, enter key in the input field not giving any error (unit unless specified they are not allowed)
7.To deal with the Other language characters:If other languages are supported in the input box check whether the system can accept them and they are not garbled.
8.Check out the integrity of information:Update the information through web and then recall that information through search to make sure it is updated property in the back end database.
9.Check to retrieve the information if the names or IDs are case sensitive.
10.Check the deletion function: Delete something and try to retrieve that information. Make sure proper error message is thrown by the system.
11.Submit the form multiple times: Fill up a form, submit it and then press browser back button. Try to resubmit the form. See how system behaves.
12.Search examination: Search function is one of the most important function to test. Check search for an item which exists. Check with invalid search criteria and see the error messages.
13.Tab location change: Check the tab location change is proper or not for a particular page.
14.From Download File Checker: Upload a proper file within the size limit and accepted format. Also check with large file, improper file format.
15.Required field validation: Omit some of the required fields and make sure system gives proper error messages.
16.Shortcut keys to check: whether to support the commonly used shortcut keys such as Ctrl + C Ctrl + V Backspace and so on
17.ENTER key to check: In the input directly after the ENTER key to see how the system reacts, whether throws some error.
1.Page links to check:Make sure links to each page of the web site is working and link among the pages are working fine.
2.The relevance of inspection:Add and delete items from a dynamic web site and make sure this does not impact the other items present in the web page.
3.To check the function of the button is correct:If the update, cancel, delete, save and other functions are correct or not.
4.String length check:Put excess of characters a input box should support and make sure it is not taking that. Also make sure if the requirement is 256 characters then it is alteast taking 256 characters.
5.Character type checking:If special character is not allowed then give some special character, negative values and make sure proper error message has been thrown by the system.
6.Punctuation check:Make sure punctuation, space, enter key in the input field not giving any error (unit unless specified they are not allowed)
7.To deal with the Other language characters:If other languages are supported in the input box check whether the system can accept them and they are not garbled.
8.Check out the integrity of information:Update the information through web and then recall that information through search to make sure it is updated property in the back end database.
9.Check to retrieve the information if the names or IDs are case sensitive.
10.Check the deletion function: Delete something and try to retrieve that information. Make sure proper error message is thrown by the system.
11.Submit the form multiple times: Fill up a form, submit it and then press browser back button. Try to resubmit the form. See how system behaves.
12.Search examination: Search function is one of the most important function to test. Check search for an item which exists. Check with invalid search criteria and see the error messages.
13.Tab location change: Check the tab location change is proper or not for a particular page.
14.From Download File Checker: Upload a proper file within the size limit and accepted format. Also check with large file, improper file format.
15.Required field validation: Omit some of the required fields and make sure system gives proper error messages.
16.Shortcut keys to check: whether to support the commonly used shortcut keys such as Ctrl + C Ctrl + V Backspace and so on
17.ENTER key to check: In the input directly after the ENTER key to see how the system reacts, whether throws some error.
Think twice Interview Questions
Think twice Interview Questions
Be careful. The only reason to ask these questions is to determine why NOT to hire you. Make your answers as short and bland as possible. Remember not to disparage any past employers, companies or co-workers.
1)What turns you off at your current employer?
2)What pisses you off?
3)What interests you least about your current job?
4)What types of situations put you under pressure, and how do you deal with pressure?
5)What industry besides this one are you looking into?
6)With which other companies are you interviewing?
Be careful. The only reason to ask these questions is to determine why NOT to hire you. Make your answers as short and bland as possible. Remember not to disparage any past employers, companies or co-workers.
1)What turns you off at your current employer?
2)What pisses you off?
3)What interests you least about your current job?
4)What types of situations put you under pressure, and how do you deal with pressure?
5)What industry besides this one are you looking into?
6)With which other companies are you interviewing?
Sell yourself Interview Questions
Sell yourself Interview Questions
Use these questions to explore why you are the perfect candidate for the vacant spot. Match your strengths to the job requirements, point for point.
1)Why are you interested in our organization?
2)Give me an example of the most creative project that you have worked on.
3)What type of position are you seeking?
4)What makes you think you can handle this position?
5)Why should my company be interested in you?
6)What challenges are you looking for in a position?
7)What interests you about this job?
Use these questions to explore why you are the perfect candidate for the vacant spot. Match your strengths to the job requirements, point for point.
1)Why are you interested in our organization?
2)Give me an example of the most creative project that you have worked on.
3)What type of position are you seeking?
4)What makes you think you can handle this position?
5)Why should my company be interested in you?
6)What challenges are you looking for in a position?
7)What interests you about this job?
Work and analytical skills Interview Question
Work Experience and analytical skills Interview Question
These questions will be used to determine not only your background experience and skills, but also your suitability for the discussed position. Don't be bashful. Thoroughly explain your background, experience and skills.
1)What accomplishments are you most proud of?
2)What part of the project life cycle have you worked on?
3)Describe the project or situation that best demonstrates your coding skills?
4)Describe the project or situation that best demonstrates your analytical abilities?
5)Give me an example of a problem you solved and the process you used?
6)Give me an example of an idea that has come to you and what you did with it?
7)Tell me about a project you initiated?
8)How have your educational and work experiences prepared you for this position?
9)What is your most significant accomplishment?
These questions will be used to determine not only your background experience and skills, but also your suitability for the discussed position. Don't be bashful. Thoroughly explain your background, experience and skills.
1)What accomplishments are you most proud of?
2)What part of the project life cycle have you worked on?
3)Describe the project or situation that best demonstrates your coding skills?
4)Describe the project or situation that best demonstrates your analytical abilities?
5)Give me an example of a problem you solved and the process you used?
6)Give me an example of an idea that has come to you and what you did with it?
7)Tell me about a project you initiated?
8)How have your educational and work experiences prepared you for this position?
9)What is your most significant accomplishment?
People skills Communication skills Interview Questions Test
Communication skills Interview Questions/Test
1)Have you ever supervised people?
2)What is your management style?
3)How do you interface with users?
4)How do you handle a customer or user who becomes irate?
5)What would your management say about you?
6)In this particular leadership role, what was your greatest challenge?
7)Describe the project or situation that best demonstrates your management/supervisory skills.
8)Tell me about a team project of which you are particularly proud and your contribution.
9)Have you taken/How do you take specifications from users?
10)Describe a situation where you had to work with someone who was difficult, how did you handle it?
11)Tell me about a problem you have with one of your work associates.
12)Which area of technical expertise do you feel is your strongest?
13)Describe the type of manager you prefer.
14)What are your team-player qualities? Give examples.
15)When you take on a project do you like to attack the project in a group or individually?
16)Tell me about your relationship with your previous boss.
17)How do you take direction?
1)Have you ever supervised people?
2)What is your management style?
3)How do you interface with users?
4)How do you handle a customer or user who becomes irate?
5)What would your management say about you?
6)In this particular leadership role, what was your greatest challenge?
7)Describe the project or situation that best demonstrates your management/supervisory skills.
8)Tell me about a team project of which you are particularly proud and your contribution.
9)Have you taken/How do you take specifications from users?
10)Describe a situation where you had to work with someone who was difficult, how did you handle it?
11)Tell me about a problem you have with one of your work associates.
12)Which area of technical expertise do you feel is your strongest?
13)Describe the type of manager you prefer.
14)What are your team-player qualities? Give examples.
15)When you take on a project do you like to attack the project in a group or individually?
16)Tell me about your relationship with your previous boss.
17)How do you take direction?
Personal Interview Questions
Personal Interview Questions
1)What makes you unique?
2)Tell me about yourself?
3)What goals have you set for yourself? How are you planning to achieve them?
4)To what do you owe your present success?
5)What is your favorite hobby and tell me why?
6)What motivates you?
7)What type of work environment appeals to you most?
8)Are you willing to travel?
9)Why have you chosen this particular profession?
10)What do you like most about your current job?
11)What has been your greatest challenge?
12)What work experiences have been most valuable to you and why?
13)Tell me about a situation in which you were under tremendous pressure and how you dealt with it?
14)Give me an example of a time in your life in which you had to overcome great adversity to get the job done?
15)Tell me about your most difficult decision and how you went about making it?
16)Where do you think your interest in this career comes from?
17)Give me a situation in which you failed, and how you handled it?
1)What makes you unique?
2)Tell me about yourself?
3)What goals have you set for yourself? How are you planning to achieve them?
4)To what do you owe your present success?
5)What is your favorite hobby and tell me why?
6)What motivates you?
7)What type of work environment appeals to you most?
8)Are you willing to travel?
9)Why have you chosen this particular profession?
10)What do you like most about your current job?
11)What has been your greatest challenge?
12)What work experiences have been most valuable to you and why?
13)Tell me about a situation in which you were under tremendous pressure and how you dealt with it?
14)Give me an example of a time in your life in which you had to overcome great adversity to get the job done?
15)Tell me about your most difficult decision and how you went about making it?
16)Where do you think your interest in this career comes from?
17)Give me a situation in which you failed, and how you handled it?
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